Answers
A patient is helped into a dorsal recumbent position so they may be examined by a medical assistant. The patient is positioned in this posture by lying face up, with the feet flat on the table and the legs bent.
The dorsal recumbent position is used for preparation for an exam like vaginal examinations, using obstetric forceps, and other operations. The patient is positioned on their back with their lower limbs flexed and turned outward. It is one of the frequently utilized dorsal or supine postures in clinical practices. Additionally, the terms "supine posture" and "dorsal recumbent position" are sometimes interchanged. To be more specific though, there is little distinction between the two locations.
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Related Questions
a condition that affects the lungs is called...
A. cardiac, asthma
B. respiratory, diabetes
C. respiratory, asthma
D. cardiac, heart disease
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
All the other things have things that are cardiac...cardiac is heart
Answer:
C. respiratory, asthma
Explanation:
Cardiac refers to the heart, diabetes is an endocrine disease, heart disease is, well, a disease of the heart.
Asthma is an example of a lung condition, and respiratory refers to the lungs.
Sumaya is ordered ceftazidime PO 9mg/kg per day. Her weight is 10kg. Calculate Sumaya's dosage for the day
Answers
Answer:
Sumaya's dosage for the day is 90mg
Explanation:
Given
\(PO=9mg/kg\) --- daily
\(Weight = 10kg\)
Required
The daily dosage
To do this, we simply multiply Sumaya's weight and the dose of PO
So, we have:
\(Dosage = PO * Weight\)
\(Dosage = 9mg/kg * 10kg\)
\(Dosage = 90mg\)
A provider who stands over a client can be viewed as intimidating and assuming a position of _______.
Answers
Hugo has major depression. He might be treated with any of the following EXCEPT
a. Tofranil
b. Xanax
c. Zoloft
d. Nardil
Answers
Answer:
B
Explanation: Xanax is for anxiety
The drug Xanax is not used to treat depression, it is generally used to treat anxiety. The correct option is b.
What is depression?Depression is a psychological condition characterized by persistent sadness and loss of interest.
It influences how you feel, think, and start behaving and can lead to a wide range of mental and physical problems. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression.
A depression is defined as a sharp decline in economic activity accompanied by a drop in growth, work opportunities, and output.
Depression raises cortisol levels in the hippocampus, preventing neuron development in the brain.
Tofranil, Zoloft, and Nardil are commonly used to treat it.
Thus, the correct option is b, as Xanax is generally used treat anxiety disorder.
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Which of the following statement about the relationship between ethical principles professional standards and codes of ethics is true?
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The statement that is true regarding the relationship between ethical principles professional standards and codes of ethics is option B.
What is the code of ethics?A code of ethics is used to guide professionals in their decision making process, and is often based on globally decided standards of what is the correct course of action in different situations. This is why option b that states that:
"Ethical principles inform and guide the professional standards set forth in various mental health professions' codes of ethics"
, is the correct option given the relationship between the code of ethics and the ethical principles of each professional and society as a whole.
Therefore, we can confirm that the statement that is true regarding the relationship between ethical principles professional standards and codes of ethics is option B.
This question was answered based on the multiple choice options found online which state:
a) Each mental health profession needs its own ethics code because there is not significant overlap among ethical principles or professional standards.b) Ethical principles inform and guide the professional standards set forth in various mental health professions' codes of ethics. c) Technically and conceptually principles, standards, and ethics codes are all the same. d) Ethical principles and professional standards are the same as morals and values.To learn more about Ethics visit:
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Why use needle loop to prepare fungi slide
Answers
Answer:
To ensure uniformity during streaking of the gel surface and to also prevent contamination while picking up the spores.
Explanation:
When preparing a fungi slide, several materials are used to prepare a slide that serves the purpose. Good aseptic procedures should be followed so as to prevent contamination of the culture. Inoculating needles are used in the preparation of the slide, and they are helpful in achieving good aseptic techniques. These needles consist of the loop and needle ends.
The loop end is used in streaking the spores uniformly on the gel surface while the needle end is used in extracting the fungal colonies. Before the loop end is used, it undergoes flaming and cooling to ensure that microorganisms are killed. In so doing, contamination is also prevented.
In the past, the utilization of telemedicine was often primarily thought of in the context of a "specialist" consulting with a physician regarding a patient in a remote or rural area who may not have easy access to the specialist, or a radiologist reading an image from a "remote" location. Due, in large part, to advancements in technology (including EMR), the term "telemedicine" currently includes such patient care practices as providing "patient portals" to patients, which may house secured provider-patient email capabilities, test result reporting, etc.
In today’s world of being "connected 24/7", initial feedback indicates that many patients like the ability to communicate with their providers from their mobile device at their convenience. However, as with many technological advances and resulting capabilities (especially in healthcare), come additional legal oversight and regulatory requirements.
Questions inevitably arise as to what type of "communication" or "reporting" to patients constitutes the "practice of medicine?"
For example, if a patient sends her physician a secure email indicating describing a "cold" or sinus infection symptoms and requests a prescription for an antibiotic, which the physician prescribes, is the physician practicing telemedicine even though she hasn’t physically seen the patient in her office? Does it matter if the physician has prescribed the same, or a similar, antibiotic for the patient’s recurring symptoms over the past ten years?
What types of additional precautions must the physician or practice take to ensure that all patient information remains "secure" and, if appropriate, "encrypted"?
Is it possible to balance the wealth of information available to patients via the Internet with a loss of a personal relationship between the patient and caregiver?
Answers
It is possible to balance the wealth of information available to patients via the Internet with a loss of a personal relationship between the patient and caregiver by open communication, empathy, and understanding remain crucial in maintaining a positive patient-provider relationship.
Telemedicine refers to the practice of healthcare professionals remotely providing medical services using technology. It has evolved from specialists consulting with physicians to now include patient portals and secure email capabilities.
Patients appreciate the convenience of communicating with their providers from their mobile devices. However, this advancement raises questions about what constitutes the "practice of medicine" and the legal and regulatory requirements that come with it.
For example, if a patient emails their physician about symptoms and requests a prescription, and the physician prescribes the medication without physically seeing the patient, it can be considered telemedicine. The physician's familiarity with the patient's recurring symptoms over the past ten years may influence their decision.
To ensure patient information remains secure and encrypted, physicians and practices must take additional precautions.The challenge lies in balancing the wealth of information available to patients on the internet with the loss of a personal relationship between the patient and caregiver Striking this balance is essential for effective healthcare delivery in today's connected world.
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If a prescription is for an eye or car drop, the directions should begin with which c
the following?
O Take
O Drop
O Instill
Put
Answers
If a prescription is for an eye or ear drop, the directions should begin with option C, Instill.
When prescribing medications in the form of eye or ear drops, it is important to use precise and specific language to ensure proper administration and effectiveness of the treatment. The word "instill" is commonly used in healthcare to indicate the process of gently placing a liquid drop by drop into a specific body part.
Using the word "instill" in the directions for eye or ear drops is essential because it conveys the intended method of administration. It instructs the patient or caregiver to carefully apply the medication to the eye or ear, drop by drop, as prescribed.
Options A) "Take" and B) "Drop" is not as appropriate for eye or ear drops. "Take" is a more general term used for oral medications, instructing the patient to ingest or consume a medication. "Drop" alone may not provide enough clarity on how to apply the medication specifically to the eye or ear, potentially leading to improper administration.
In the context of eye or ear drops, the word "instill" ensures that patients follow the correct procedure and achieve the desired therapeutic effect. It is crucial to adhere to the precise instructions provided by healthcare professionals to ensure safety, effectiveness, and proper treatment of eye or ear conditions.
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The question was Incomplete, Find the full content below :
If a prescription is for an eye or ear drop, the directions should begin with Which option from the following?
A. Take
B. Drop
C. Instill
how is mannitol salt agar (MSA) different from staphylococcus medium 110 (SM110)?a) a toxin can be detected on MSA, but not on SM110.b) MSA is selective for staphylococci, SM110 is not.c) SM110 is selective for staphylococci, MSA is not.d) MS differentiates mannitol fermenters from mannitol non fermenters, SM110 does not
Answers
The difference between mannitol salt agar (MSA) and staphylococcus medium 110 (SM110) is correctly explained by option d) MSA differentiates mannitol fermenters from mannitol non-fermenters, SM110 does not.
Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) is a selective and differential medium that is used to isolate and identify staphylococci. The high salt concentration in the medium inhibits the growth of most other bacteria, allowing only staphylococci to grow.
MSA also contains the sugar mannitol, which some staphylococci can ferment to produce acid. The presence of a pH indicator in the medium allows for the differentiation of mannitol fermenters (which produce acid and turn the medium yellow) from mannitol non-fermenters (which do not produce acid and leave the medium red).
Staphylococcus Medium 110 (SM110) is also a selective medium for staphylococci, but it does not contain mannitol or a pH indicator. Therefore, SM110 cannot differentiate between mannitol fermenters and non-fermenters.
In conclusion, the main difference between MSA and SM110 is that MSA is both selective and differential, while SM110 is only selective.
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two technicians are discussing shopkeypro technician a says that the 1search module is the preferred module to use because it is the quickest and most efficient way of gathering all diagnostic and repair related information about a code component or system. technician b says the service manual module is prefered search method because it is also built for speed and efficiency
Answers
Technicians are a group of engineers who help to understand the equipment and it makes it easy for people.
Who is the technician?Technicians are engineers which help in the study of equipment and machines.
In the medical field, machines are required for various purposes. Various medical instruments such as ECG, dialysis, and many other instruments are required.
Two scientists say that the first module is preferred because it is the quickest and technician b says the service module is preferred because it is used to build for speed and efficiency.
Two technicians are saying this from their perspectives because they both have different perspectives and both are true.
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Pre-planning is intended to answer questions related to all of the following EXCEPT:
Choose matching definition
1 Use experimental groups only
2 How the goals and objectives will be achieved
3 The success rate of the evaluation methods
4 Identifies what will be accomplished through the intervention or program
Answers
All autumn preparation should keep in mind the three Fs: forward-thinking, flexibility, and formative practises. I think these procedures will enable your software to perform above the standard.
Which steps comprise health planning?The planning process in the healthcare industry has eight stages: situational analysis, problem identification and prioritisation, objective setting, strategic formulation, activity sequencing, resource allocation, action planning, and monitoring and control. Setting goals and monitoring progress are both dependent on them.
The five stages of programme development include analysis, design, coding, debugging and testing, as well as implementing and maintaining application software. This process is known as the programme development life cycle (PDLC).
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idk how to do this g:(((
Answers
Answer:
Body's health is normal if the vital signs comes in the range.
Explanation:
If my vital sign data comes between in the range, so we can conclude that my body's health is good and is able to perform normal functions. If the pulse rate, respiration rate, temperature and blood pressure readings go lower from the minimum range and goes higher from the maximum range so it means that there is something not right in my body which disturbs the homeostasis of my body.
What effects occur to the bones of astronauts who spend a prolonged period in space?
Answers
Answer:
there bodies can streatch out
for example a fat man will become skinny and very tall when in space for a very long time, but when back on earth his body may reajust due to earth gravity
Which ancient discoveries are you most interested in learning about? check all that apply. Calendars farming math medicine astronomy music.
Answers
The ancient discoveries that are most interesting in learning about are math and astronomy.
Аncient Egyptiаn civilizаtion wаs аn аdvаnced culture in terms of аstronomy аnd mаthemаtics. However, these were not only scholаrly pursuits. These developments hаd аn importаnt impаct in the everydаy аctivities of common people. That's why mathematics and astronomy are most interesting in learning about.
There were significаnt аchievements in the field of аstronomy аs well. Bаsed on their observаtions of the sun аnd the moon's movements, the Egyptiаns developed аn аccurаte cаlendаr orgаnized in twelve 30-dаy months, three seаsons of four months eаch, plus аn extrа five dаys, giving а 365-yeаr dаy but with no wаy of аccounting for the extrа quаrter dаy eаch yeаr. Dаy аnd night were split into 24 units. This аllowed people to fаrm the lаnd more successfully.
Your options are not well arranged, but most probably your options were
a. Calendars farming
b. math
c. medicine
d. astronomy
e. music
Thus, the correct answer is B and D.
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According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, only children and adolescents whose _____ is at or above the _____ percentile are classified as obese.
Answers
Answer:
BMI or 95th
Explanation:
It's according to there height and weight when they are classified as obese
nancy walker, a medical assistant, ask a patient if he has been experiencing any pain,he says that he has not , but when he moves from the chair in to the examination room to the exam table nancy notices that he limps his facial mucsle are tense, and there is a light sweat on his forehead. What other nonverbal signals might indicate that the patient has not been completey honest
Answers
Answer:
Avoiding eye contact
Which of the following are ways in which masks help prevent the spread of 5 points
viruses? (Select all that apply.) *
A Masks catch respiratory droplets before they evaporate, preventing them from
becoming microdroplets that can be easily carried through the air.
B. Masks reroute droplets to the sides of a person's face.
C. Masks reduce the momentum of droplets they don't catch.
D. Masks prevent us from breathing as deeply, making us produce fewer droplets.
Answers
2. How does the entire nervous system allow our bodies to interact with our world? Your response must include the following terms: • peripheral nervous system • central nervous system • Sensory neurons - motor neurons
Answers
There are many billions of nerve cells, also called neurons, in the nervous system. The brain alone has about 100 billion neurons in it. Each neuron has a cell body and various extensions. The shorter extensions (called dendrites) act like antennae: they receive signals from, for example, other neurons and pass them on to the cell body. The signals are then passed on via a long extension (the axon), which can be up to a meter long. The nervous system takes in information through our senses, processes the information and triggers reactions, such as making your muscles move or causing you to feel pain. For example, if you touch a hot plate, you reflexively pull back your hand and your nerves simultaneously send pain signals to your brain.
178. A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a parent about the use of nystatin for an infant who has oral candidiasis. Which
of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the administration of nystatin?
Answers
A pregnant patient delivers twins at 30 weeks gestation. The first baby is delivered vaginally, but during this delivery, the second baby has turned into the transverse position during labor. The decision is made to perform a cesarean to deliver the second baby. The OB physician who performed the delivery also performed the prenatal care. The standard coding for this is
Answers
The standard coding for the delivery of the twin patients is 59409, 59410, and 59510.
The delivery of multiple fetuses is coded as a single unit and not separately when the delivery occurs during the same encounter. When the delivery occurs through cesarean section and with multiple fetuses, code 59510 is used once for the delivery, and the delivery of the additional fetus is coded with 59409 or 59410, depending on the method of delivery for the first fetus. The delivery of the first baby is coded with the appropriate delivery code based on whether it was vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery. The patient was at 30 weeks gestation, which is considered premature birth. A premature birth involves the delivery of the baby before the 37th week of pregnancy.
The standard coding for the premature birth is 644.2x. The xx in the code should be replaced with the appropriate number based on the gestational age of the baby at the time of delivery. For instance, a premature birth that occurs at 30 weeks gestation is coded as 644.20.In conclusion, when a pregnant patient delivers twins at 30 weeks gestation, the appropriate coding for the delivery depends on the method of delivery for each fetus and the gestational age of the fetus at the time of delivery. The standard coding for the delivery is 59409, 59410, and 59510, while the standard coding for the premature birth is 644.2x.
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When you are preforming CPR on an unresponsive person whom you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?
Answers
Answer: Give CPR, starting with chest compressions, if the choking person loses consciousness. Every time you open the lips to breathe, look inside to eliminate any things you notice. Perform abdominal thrusts before dialing 9-1-1 or your local emergency number if you're the sole rescuer.
Explanation: Another thing always look in the mouth to see if the object is in there or is coming up.
(I hope this helps! If not then I'm sorry.)
Why is the medulla oblongata called the vital center?
Answers
Answer:
The medulla oblongata is known as the lower half of the brainstem, and is responsible for several basic functions such as the reflexes that causes one to cough, sneeze and even swallowing.
The medulla oblongata may be regarded as the “spinal cord of the head” when viewed from the perspective of its importance in the control of head and facial musculature. The medulla oblongata is not an independent entity in the central nervous system. It does not participate in a single function that is not, at some level, dependent on input from and modulation by other regions of the nervous system. The medulla oblongata acts as a pipeline for ascending and descending pathways involved in a wide variety of nervous system functions and also as a processor of input from a diverse array of sources located within the periphery as well as from all levels of the nervous system. Many of the homeostatic functions of the nervous system are regulated by neurons confined to the medulla oblongata, although these processes are fine-tuned through a host of interactions with most levels of the neuraxis.
Membranes are sheets of tissue. Membranes cover surfaces, line body cavities, and surround organs. Membranes are classified as epithelial membranes or connective tissue membranes. The epithelial membranes include cutaneous (skin), mucous, and serous membranes. Explain how water and other nutrients move through memebranes.
Answers
Answer:
Water moves across a permeable barrier during osmosis to equalize the solute concentration on each side of the membrane. Nutrients, on the other hand, are absorbed across a barrier by a process known as diffusion
Explanation:
Osmosis is a process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, thus equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane. Diffusion is the process by which atoms or molecules move from an area of high concentration to low concentration
Why would 131I be used to specifically destroy the thyroid gland and have minimal effect on other cells And tissues in the body
Answers
Answer:
The thyroid gland absorbs almost all of the iodine in the body. When radioactive iodine (RAI), also known as I-131, is given to the body as a liquid or capsule, it becomes concentrated in thyroid cells. Radiation can kill the thyroid gland and any other thyroid cells or tissues (including cancer cells) that absorb iodine, without damaging any other organs.
Explanation:
The thyroid gland is an organ that belongs to the endocrine system and its function is to synthesize hormones that are responsible for controlling the body's metabolism, this gland has an important characteristic and that is that the hormones it produces have a unique chemical composition due to They are the only hormones that contain iodine in their structure, this in turn is essential for its functioning because the body does not synthesize it and it must be consumed in the diet. When a small dose of the radiopharmaceutical iodine 131 (Sodium Iodide 131I) is consumed, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and concentrated by the thyroid gland, where it begins to destroy cancer cells in the gland. 131I quickly attaches itself to thyroid cells to destroy them, but continues to emit radioactivity for a long time: it takes 8 days to halve. The beta radiation particles of 131I, which we call radioiodine or radioactive iodine, have a range of 2mm and act for a long time in a constant way. Fortunately, the body's metabolism quickly expels iodine through the urine, so that in one day the amount of iodine has decreased considerably.
a client diagnosed with ms has been admitted to the medical unit for treatment of an ms exacerbation. included in the admission orders is baclofen. what should the nurse identify as an expected outcome of this treatment?
Answers
A purchaser identified with ms has been admitted to the clinical unit for treatment of an ms exacerbation. protected within the admission orders is baclofen Lioresal..
Exacerbation: A worsening. In medication, exacerbation might also talk to an increase in the severity of sickness or its signs and symptoms and signs. for example, an exacerbation of allergies might occur as a critical effect of air pollution, leading to shortness of breath.
Treatment alternatives for exacerbations consist of bronchodilators, corticosteroids, antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and airflow. COPD is the call given to a collection of long-term lung sicknesses. The situation tends to get worse over time and symptoms can encompass: wheezing.
They may be brought on, especially by breathing viruses and microorganisms, which infect the decreased airway and increase airway irritation. a few sufferers are specifically prone to exacerbations and show worse fitness popularity and faster sickness development than those who have rare exacerbations.
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Ms. Hougland is scheduled for an outpatient procedure. You have obtained a precertification number for the
procedure. What purpose does a precertification number serve?
Allows the doctor to perform the procedure.
Allows the doctor to bill for the procedure.
Guarantees reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure.
Requires the patient to pay for the service.
Answers
Answer:
allows the doctor to pay the bill for the procedure.
Explanation:
he makes sure that the patient had the insurance before the procedure
The purpose that the precertification number serve is to guarantee reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure
The main function of the precertification number is that there are some scenarios whereby the providers will have to contact the insurer of the patient and they'll then get a precertification number which will be enable the hospital or the doctor to be reimbursed by the insurance company later.Without the precertification number, the provider won't be reimbursed.In conclusion, the correct option is C.
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What are some factors that can lead to the disruption of a healthy microbiome?
Answers
There are several intrinsic and extrinsic factors that can influence the composition of the gut bacteria and ultimately affect health.
Method of delivery at birth. ...
Infant feeding. ...
Genetics. ...
Infections. ...
Medications. ...
Diet. ...
Yogurt and the gut microbiome.
quizlet Putting the patient at the center of the decisions, resources, and desired outcomes and providing the necessary information that empowers patients to become involved in making decisions regarding their own treatment.
Answers
Putting the patient at the center of decisions, resources, and desired outcomes is an approach known as patient-centered care.
This involves empowering patients with information to make decisions about their treatment.
One platform that supports this is Quizlet.
Quizlet is an online learning tool that allows users to create flashcards, quizzes, and study materials. By using Quizlet, patients can access educational resources and information about their condition, treatments, and desired outcomes.
This helps them become more involved in their own healthcare decisions. By providing a user-friendly platform, Quizlet helps patients take control of their treatment and become active participants in their healthcare journey.
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why might adolescence be a stressful time for many teenagers?; briefly describe how risk-taking behavior in adolescence is connected to brain maturation.; what are some factors that influence emotional changes throughout adolescence?; what are some of the common physical changes for boys and girls during puberty?; compare and contrast the early adolescence period to the late adolescence period.; adolescence covers the stage of personal development and growth between childhood and adulthood.; as teens move through adolescence, __________.; the adolescent period can be divided into early, middle, and late periods.
Answers
Since adolescents go through physiological, emotional, and mental changes, adolescence could be stressful. It may also be difficult since teenagers are burdened with higher expectations and much more responsibilities, such as, but not limited to, grades and chores.
A brief description of how risk-taking behavior in adolescence is connected to brain maturation is as follows:
Responses might differ, but they should contain all or some of the following information: studies show that the prefrontal cortex, or the part of the brain that assists in managing impulses and emotions, is not completely developed in adolescents. The brain's reward region also looks to be extremely active during adolescence as well. Adolescents may be more inclined to engage in risky behavior as a consequence of cognitive immaturity since they may be unable to control their emotions or hold off gratification when it is needed.The other questions are answered as follows:
Changes in self-perception, how teenagers are treated, increased sensitivity to criticism, an increasing drive for independence, and an increased need to belong are some of the factors that affect emotional changes throughout adolescence.During puberty, some of the common physical changes that happen to both girls and boys include growth spurts, increased sweating, acne issues, and the growth of genital and underarm hair.Throughout early adolescence, most adolescents tend to put themselves first and pay little attention to the opinions of others. When the late adolescent period is reached, they are more inclined to consider others, be more rational in their decision-making, and realize the implications of their actions.The stage of personal growth and development between childhood and adulthood is known as adolescence. This statement is true.As teens move through adolescence, their freedom increases, as does their responsibility.The adolescent period is divided into 3 periods, which are: early, middle, and late periods. This statement is true.Learn more about adolescence here: brainly.com/question/1956818
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the nurse instructs a client with a history of heart palpitations not to take oral caffeine. the client asks the nurse why, and the nurse explains that nonprescription caffeine should be avoided in clients with what history? (check all that apply.)
Answers
Answer:
Patient with history of stomach ulcers
Patient with history of heart disease
Patient with history of high blood pressure
Explanation:
Caffeine can have adverse effects on individuals with prior histories of these conditions.
The nurse should advise clients with the following histories to avoid nonprescription caffeine:
History of heart palpitations: Caffeine can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which can trigger heart palpitations or arrhythmias in some people.History of anxiety or panic disorders: Caffeine can worsen anxiety symptoms and increase the risk of panic attacks in people with these disorders.History of gastrointestinal problems: Caffeine can aggravate symptoms such as acid reflux, stomach ulcers, and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).History of insomnia or sleep disorders: Caffeine can interfere with sleep patterns and exacerbate insomnia or other sleep disorders.Therefore, the nurse should advise clients with a history of heart palpitations, anxiety or panic disorders, gastrointestinal problems, or insomnia/sleep disorders to avoid nonprescription caffeine.