Answer:
The Red Sea.
Explanation:
Quoting Exodus 14:
Now the Lord spoke to Moses, saying: "Speak to the children of Israel, that they turn and camp before Pi Hahiroth, between Migdol and the sea, opposite of Baal Zephon; You shall camp before it by the sea. [v. 1-2].
And the Lord said to Moses, "Why do you cry to Me? Tell the children of Israel to go forward. But lift your rod, and stretch out your hand over the sea and divide it. And the children of Israel shall go on dry ground through the mist of the sea. [v. 15 - 16].
These ancient locations are located near the Red Sea. Pi-hahiroth is the mouth of the Hiroth, which is named after a nearby town. Migdol is the name used to describe the area near the Promise Land, which is on the other side of the sea. Baal Zephon, in this case, is the name for a temple to a Canaanite god that was located in Egyptian territory.
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neuroticism select one: a. is simply another term for anxiety. b. is a tendency to experience negative mood states. c. is a tendency to feel anxious.
Neuroticism is a tendency to experience negative mood states. The correct option is B.
What is neuroticism?
The propensity to consistently experience negative or anxious emotions is known as neuroticism. It is a personality feature rather than a disease. This is frequently misunderstood as neurosis.
The five-factor model of personality, which also includes extraversion, agreeability, conscientiousness, and openness, includes neuroticism as one of its five components. In many different cultures, this approach is applied in personality assessments and examinations.
People with neuroticism regularly and severely experience feelings of guilt, envy, rage, and anxiety compared to other people. They also tend to have more low moods overall.
They may be sensitive to environmental stress. People with neuroticism could interpret commonplace events as grave threats. Even minor irritations that other people may dismiss as unimportant might become troublesome and cause despair.
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the term __________ refers to a situation that might be unethical but offers potential benefits.
The term "ethical dilemma" refers to a situation that might be unethical but offers potential benefits.
An ethical dilemma occurs when an individual or a group is faced with a choice between two or more conflicting moral principles or values. It is a challenging situation where one option may seem ethically justifiable, while another option may offer potential benefits or advantages. Ethical dilemmas often arise when there is a clash between different ethical considerations, such as honesty versus loyalty, or personal gain versus the greater good.
Resolving ethical dilemmas requires careful consideration and weighing of the potential benefits and consequences of each choice. It involves finding a balance between ethical principles and the practical realities of the situation, aiming to make the most ethical decision given the circumstances.
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In 1868 how much land was set aside for the Great Sioux nation?
organizational behavior is the study of human behavior in organizational settings, the interface between and the organization, and the organization itself. true or false
The statement "organizational behavior is the study of human behavior in organizational settings, the interface between and the organization, and the organization itself" is TRUE.
Organizational behavior is the study of human behavior in organizational settings, the interface between and the organization, and the organization itself. Organizational behavior aims to understand, anticipate, and influence behavior in organizations to increase effectiveness and efficiency. This discipline examines human behavior in organizations at the individual, group, and organizational levels. It is multidisciplinary, including inputs from psychology, sociology, anthropology, economics, and political science.
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Q4. A vote is to be taken among the residents of Parit Sulong and surrounding county to determine whether a proposed dam should be constructed. The construction site is within Parit Sulong limits, and for this reason many voters in the county believe that the proposal will pass because of the large proportion of Parit Sulong voters favor the construction. To determine if there is a significant difference in the proportions of Parit Sulong voters and county voters who favor the proposal, a poll is taken. The poll results in 120 of 200 Parit Sulong voters favor the proposal and 240 of 500 county residents favor it. Use an α = 0.05 level of significance.
(a)State hypothesis and compute the proportion of Parit Sulong voters p₁, the proportion of county voters p2, and the pooled estimate of proportion (b) Compute z-value and its corresponding probability P
(c) State the conclusion whether you would agree that the proportion of Parit Sulong voters who favor the proposal is higher than the proportion of county voters.
a) The null hypothesis H₀ is: H₀: p₁ = p₂ and the alternative hypothesis H₁ is: H₁: p₁ > p₂. The proportion of Parit Sulong voters, p₁ is 0.6, the proportion of county voters, p₂ is 0.48, and the pooled estimate of proportion, p is 0.52.
b) The z-value is 2.63 and corresponding probability is 0.0043.
c) There is enough evidence to conclude that the proportion of Parit Sulong voters who favor the proposal is higher than the proportion of county voters who favor the proposal.
a) Hypothesis statements: Here p₁ and p₂ represents the proportion of Parit Sulong voters and county voters who favor the proposal respectively.
The null hypothesis H₀ is that there is no difference in proportions between Parit Sulong voters and county voters. H₀: p₁ = p₂
The alternative hypothesis H₁ is that there is a difference in proportions between Parit Sulong voters and county voters. H₁: p₁ > p₂
The proportion of Parit Sulong voters, p₁ = (Number of Parit Sulong voters in favor of the proposal) / (Total number of Parit Sulong voters) = 120/200= 0.6
The proportion of county voters, p₂ = (Number of county voters in favor of the proposal) / (Total number of county voters) = 240/500= 0.48
The pooled estimate of proportion, p = (Number of Parit Sulong voters in favor of the proposal + Number of county voters in favor of the proposal) / (Total number of Parit Sulong voters + Total number of county voters) = (120+240)/(200+500) = 0.52
b) The standard error of the difference between two sample proportions,
SE(p₁ - p₂) = √{(p(1-p)(1/n₁+1/n₂)}= √{(0.52(1-0.52)(1/200+1/500)}= 0.0457
The test statistic,
z= (p₁ - p₂) / SE(p₁ - p₂) = (0.6 - 0.48) / 0.0457= 2.63
Probability corresponding to z = 2.63 is P = 0.0043 from normal distribution table
c) As the P-value is less than the level of significance (α = 0.05), we reject the null hypothesis. Therefore, there is enough evidence to conclude that the proportion of Parit Sulong voters who favor the proposal is higher than the proportion of county voters who favor the proposal.
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The Confederate States of America is formed with who is a West Point graduate and former U.S. Army officer, as president.
The Confederates States of America was formed with Jefferson Davis, a West Point graduate, and former U.S. Army officer, as its president.
The Confederate States of America (CSA) was formed in 1861, primarily as a response to the ongoing dispute between Southern and Northern states in the United States over the issues of states' rights and slavery. It comprised 11 states that had seceded from the United States and aimed to establish their own separate nation.
The CSA chose Jefferson Davis, a West Point graduate, and former U.S. Army officer, as their president. Davis, who was also a former U.S. Senator and Secretary of War, was seen as a competent and experienced leader who could guide the newly-formed Confederacy through its challenging times. His military background and political experience made him a strong choice to lead the Confederate government and its armed forces during the upcoming Civil War.
Ultimately, the Confederate States of America was defeated by the Union forces in the American Civil War, leading to the reintegration of the secessionist states back into the United States. Jefferson Davis' role as president of the CSA remains a significant and controversial aspect of American history, as it highlights the complexities and challenges faced by leaders during this tumultuous period.
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The Spanish built missions in Texas and Mexico. What was the purpose of this establishment?
O To ward off evil spirits
O To teach Native Americans military drills
O To protect the Spanish Establishments
O To convert Native Americans to Christianity
Answer:
Correct answer is To convert Native Americans to Christianity.
Explanation:
First option is not correct as it has no reference to any historical facts.
Second option is not correct as it was too dangerous to learn Natives military practice.
Third option is not correct as it was hard to create permanent peace with Indians.
Fourth is correct as they wanted to strengthen the influence of Catholic church in this area.
Which approach to development focuses only on human actions that can be observed and objectively verified?
Behaviorism approach to development focuses only on human actions that can be observed and objectively verified.
Behaviorism is a branch of psychology that focuses on how behaviour is affected by controlled environmental changes. Behavioristic teaching techniques aim to alter a subject's environment, whether it be a person or an animal, in an effort to alter the subject's perceptible behaviour.
Since human behaviour is learnt, it is possible to unlearn any behaviour and replace it with a new one. The observable and quantifiable characteristics of human action are the main focus of behaviourism. Therefore, behaviours may be unlearned when they become unacceptable.
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if you are involved in an automobile accident where someone is injured, leaving the scene before help arrives is bad decision since:
In light of the query It is prohibited to leave the site of a vehicle accident before help can reach a victim since doing so is illegal.
What word best sums up a felony?
A crime is considered to be a felony if the potential sentence is so much more than just year in prison. The maximum sentence for a misdemeanor is one year in jail, whereas felonies are much more serious offenses.
A felony charge is what?
A felony is any offense that carries a death sentence or a lengthy jail sentence. The most heinous offences are felonies. Comparing felony and misdemeanor cases is something that the prosecutors and courts do differently (cases that have shorter possible sentences).
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How did the militia know to gather?
captured from the French or Spanish by provincial soldiers and brought home.
Two lanterns hanging from Boston's North Church informed the countryside that the British were going to attack by sea.
What are the lasting lessons that we can learn from studying this event? Support your response with evidence from the text.
Answer:
The lasting lessons that we can learn from studying this event and response with evidence from the text is described below in detailed explanation.
Explanation:
The event represented in the article is explained in school today because it was the current affair and during these times the prevailing topics are must to describe to the children.
The lesson that we can teach to the children must be informed of the current affairs that are happened around the world and the attention about the topics.
the code of professional responsibilities in educational measurement indicates that test users should communicate any:
The code of professional responsibilities in educational measurement indicates that test users should communicate any relevant information that may affect test results.
What is the code of professional responsibilities in educational measurement?The Code of Professional Responsibilities in Educational Measurement (CPREM) is a set of guidelines that guides the behavior of people who use educational assessments.
This document, which was published by the American Educational Research Association (AERA), outlines the ethical principles and standards that assessment professionals should adhere to.
The purpose of CPREM is to assure the public that educational assessments are conducted fairly, accurately, and impartially, and that the data produced by these assessments are valid and reliable. CPREM is intended to be a set of best practices that professionals in the field of educational measurement should strive to follow.
CPREM suggests that all testing must be conducted in such a way that individuals are not disadvantaged by irrelevant conditions. It is critical that tests be created and administered in a way that is fair and equal to all test-takers.
Test users must ensure that testing is conducted in a way that is valid, reliable, and free from biases that may be triggered by non-testing factors. In addition, test users must communicate any relevant information that may affect test results in order to ensure that the test results are valid and reliable.
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According to the Keynesian framework, cause inflation, but not a recession. Price A) decrease; interest rates. B) decrease; a major trading partner's export price. C) a decrease; a major trading partner's economy. D) an increase; domestic investment.
According to the Keynesian framework, a decrease in interest rates can cause inflation, but not a recession.
According to the Keynesian framework, inflation can be caused by a decrease in interest rates (option A). When interest rates are lowered, it becomes cheaper to borrow money, which can stimulate spending and increase aggregate demand. This increased demand, without a corresponding increase in the supply of goods and services, can lead to price increases and inflationary pressures in the economy.
In contrast, the Keynesian framework does not suggest that a decrease in price (option B), a major trading partner's export price, or a major trading partner's economy (option C) would cause inflation. In fact, these factors may have a deflationary effect, meaning they can lead to a decrease in prices rather than inflation.
Similarly, an increase in domestic investment (option D) is not typically associated with causing inflation within the Keynesian framework. Instead, increased investment can lead to economic growth and job creation, potentially reducing the risk of a recession.
It's important to note that the Keynesian framework is just one perspective on macroeconomic theory, and other economic theories may provide different explanations for the relationship between inflation, recession, and various economic factors.
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how might 231,232, and 233 create a feeling of resentment among the german people against the allies following world war 1
e
The German people become resentful of the allies after World War 1 as a result of actions 231, 232, and 233?
Article 232: The Allied and Associated Governments acknowledge that the resources of Germany are insufficient to make full reparations for all such loss and damages, after taking into account permanent diminutions of such resources resulting from other provisions of the Treaty.
How did Germany fare in light of Article 231?May 7, 1919
The "War Guilt Clause," also known as Article 231, which demanded Germany to acknowledge full responsibility for starting World War I and make massive reparation payments, was perhaps the most humiliating part of the treaty for the defeated Germany.
What underpins Article 231 of the Treaty of Versailles as a whole?Article 231, also known as the "war guilt clause," demanded that Germany take ownership of "all the loss and harm" it caused on the Allies.
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Which of the following would be a negative symptom of a schizophrenic
patient?
A. The patient has no reaction when told his mother has died.
B. The patient yells at the nursing staff when told his mother has
died.
C. The patient laughs hysterically when told his mother has died.
D. The patient hits the walls again and again when told his mother
has died.
Answer:
A. The patient has no reaction when told his mother has died.
Explanation:
im a smart boy
Nancy was reprimanded by her boss at her job. When she got home, she yelled at her husband even though he had done nothing wrong. What defense mechanism might provoke her behavior
Answer:
Displacement
Explanation:
Molly did not hear about the opening for the Director of Public Relations position in her place of employment because she is not tapped into the informal communication network. Molly has experienced difficulty in access resulting from:
Answer:
relational barriers.
Explanation:
these are barriers that keeps an individual from developing healthy and functional relationships with your colleagues, family, and friends. it restrain one from getting to know the other person, organisation, state e.t.c and also lack of trustworthiness
One of the following tests is related to the Respect for Persons approach: a. The Self-Defeating Test b. Cost Benefit Analysis test c. Rules and Practices Test d. Maximizing Good Consequences
The test related to the Respect for Persons approach is the Self-Defeating Test, and it involves assessing whether the implementation of a principle or a regulation leads to a result that defeats its intended purpose. This test allows for the consideration of the well-being of individuals or groups who may be affected by the principle or regulation.
Respect for Persons is one of the three primary ethical principles underpinning the Belmont Report, which was created to provide ethical guidelines for research involving human subjects. The Belmont Report outlines three key ethical principles that should be adhered to in the conduct of research involving human subjects: respect for persons, beneficence, and justice. Respect for persons recognizes the inherent dignity and autonomy of individuals and the need to protect them from coercion and exploitation. It requires that individuals are treated as autonomous agents capable of making decisions for themselves.
In addition, it requires that vulnerable populations, such as children, prisoners, and mentally disabled individuals, are protected from harm and coercion when participating in research.The Self-Defeating Test is related to the Respect for Persons approach because it recognizes the importance of protecting individuals from coercion and exploitation. It ensures that principles and regulations that are intended to protect individuals are not used in a way that undermines their autonomy or leads to harm. This test helps to ensure that ethical principles are applied in a way that is consistent with their intended purpose.
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What is an ecological risk assessment
An Ecological Risk Assessment involves the assessment of the risks posed by the presence of substances released to the environment by man, in theory, on all living organisms in the variety of ecosystems which make up the environment.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Ecological Risk Assessment (EcoRA) involves the assessment of the risks posed by the presence of substances released to the environment by man, in theory, on all living organisms in the variety of ecosystems which make up the environment.
Explanation:
Ecological risk assessments can be used to predict the likelihood of future effects prospective or evaluate the likelihood that effects are caused by past exposure to stressors retrospective
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Which one of the following is NOT a Quality of Life issue used to help make global location decisions
Culture
All of the Above
Economy
Education
Mobility (i.e., the ability to easily move around in a country, city, community, etc.
Culture and Economy is not a Quality of Life issue used to help make global location decisions.
What do you mean by Quality of Life?The World Health Organization defines quality of life as "a person's view of their place in life in relation to their objectives, aspirations, standards, and concerns in the context of the culture and value systems in which they live."
Wealth, employment, the environment, physical and mental health, education, leisure activities, social connections, religious beliefs, safety, security, and freedom are all common measures of life quality.
There are many different contexts for QOL, such as those in the areas of international development, healthcare, politics, and employment. An assessment of QOL and its connection to health is known as health-related QOL.
Happiness is subjective and challenging to quantify, hence other metrics are typically prioritized.
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How were the Salzburgers similar to the Highland Scots? How were they different?
How were the Salzburgers and the Highland Scots especially well-suited to the Trustee Period
in Georgia’s history?
One similarity of these two groups was that they participated in the British colonization of Georgia, and one difference is that they had different roles in this process.
What is georgia?Georgia is one of the fifty states that make up the United States and its capital and most populous city is Atlanta. Its process of British colonization began in the year 1730, when a group of British established plans for the creation of a colony in the uncharted South Carolinas. This colony was named Georgia, after the then monarch of the United Kingdom, King George II of Great Britain.
Groups of Scots from the highlands and the inhabitants of Salzburg had the support of the monarch in their task of colonization and rule in this territory.
What similarities and differences did the inhabitants of Salzburg have with the Scots of the Highlands?Similarities
The main similarity between these two groups was that they were appointed by King George II to colonize the lands of Georgia for the benefit of the British crown.They had a prominent role in negotiating with the indigenous peoples of the state of Georgia and Florida.Both groups disapproved of slavery in colonized lands.Differences
The people of Salzburg were given the right to settle in the state of Georgia.The Highland Scots had the task of providing security conditions for the inhabitants of Salzburg in their task of colonizing.Read more about Georgia in: https://brainly.com/question/14061051
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Peter kisses the hand of his mother before leaving and upon arrival from a long trip. his younger son learned to do the same when he left for us to study. this is an example of:_________
The given scenario represents the social learning theory.
Social learning theory proposes that people can learn through observation and imitation of others, rather than direct experience. It is concerned with how people acquire new behaviors, values, and attitudes through observing others and can also include direct instruction. Thus, the scenario where Peter kisses the hand of his mother before leaving and upon arrival from a long trip, and his younger son learned to do the same when he left for us to study is an example of social learning theory. The kissing of the mother's hand is a learned behavior, and it is learned through observation and imitation of Peter. The younger son learned this behavior from his father Peter, which is why he did the same when he left for the US to study.
According to social learning theory, social behavior is learned through observation and imitation. Clinician Albert Bandura fostered the social learning hypothesis open_in_new as an option in contrast to the previous work of individual therapist B.F. Skinner, known for his impact on behaviorism.
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which of the following people is making a self-serving attribution?
a) Irina, who believes that one low test score will ruin her GPA
b) Ahmed, who believes that his high test scores are due to his high intelligence
c) Jordan, who thinks that they got accepted into graduate school due to luck
d) Ophelia, who acknowledges that she got fired for poor work performance
In the following options, Ahmed is the one with the self-serving attributes. So, option B is the correct option.
Self-serving attributes are those qualities in a person which make them such that they give themselves all credit for whatever good is happening in their life. They also have the tendency to blame whatever bad things happen to them on external factors.
Here, we have been told that Ahmed believes that his high test scores are due to his high intelligence. While all other people lament about their luck and numbers, Ahmed is on cloud nine and gives himself all the credit. This means he is making a self-serving attribution here. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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I want a long answer on Disaster Mitigation Plans
If you don't know long answer. Please don't answer the question
Disaster mitigation plans are comprehensive strategies designed to reduce the risks and vulnerabilities associated with potential disasters and minimize their impact on communities, infrastructure, and the environment.
A robust disaster mitigation plan involves several key components:
Risk Assessment: A thorough analysis of the potential hazards and vulnerabilities in a specific region or community is essential. This includes identifying natural hazards such as earthquakes, floods, hurricanes, or wildfires, as well as human-induced risks.Prevention and Preparedness: Mitigation plans emphasize the importance of prevention and preparedness measures. This involves implementing structural and non-structural measures to minimize the impact of disasters. Response and Recovery: Effective disaster mitigation plans also address response and recovery strategies. These include establishing emergency response mechanisms, coordinating disaster management agencies, training first responders, and ensuring the availability of essential resources such as medical supplies, food, water.Community Engagement: Successful disaster mitigation plans incorporate community participation and engagement. Involving community members in the planning and decision-making processes fosters a sense of ownership and empowerment.Continuous Monitoring and Evaluation: Disaster mitigation plans should be dynamic and adaptive. Regular monitoring and evaluation enable stakeholders to assess the effectiveness of the plan, identify areas for improvement, and adapt strategies to evolving risks and changing circumstances.In conclusion, disaster mitigation plans are vital instruments for reducing the impact of disasters on communities and promoting resilience.
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Which large city was located the farthest west in the Islamic Empire?
Answer: Cordoba.
Explanation: Cordoba is a city located in the south region of Andalusia.
How did Rome display their power
Answer: The Roman Republic became the Roman Empire in 27 BCE when Julius Caesar's adopted son, best known as Augustus, became the ruler of Rome. Augustus established an autocratic form of government, where he was the sole ruler and made all important decisions.
Explanation: Hopefully this helps you. (Pls don't report if this is wrong)
According to ______, the ethical standards that a company should follow are based in part on universal principles that apply in every situation and in part on local cultures and values that help determine what is considered ethical behavior. Multiple choice question. environmental sustainability ethical relativism moral rights and norms integrative social contracts theory
Answer:
The correct answer is ''integrative social contracts theory''
Explanation:
The integrative social contracts theory, postulates that ethical decisions must be based on the ethical norms of industries and communities to determine what constitutes right and wrong, that is, a contract that establishes what is considered ethical/moral behavior. This conception of ethics is based on the integration of two “contracts”: the general social contract with which companies operate and define the acceptable basic rules, and a more specific contract between the members of a community, in which they are addressed acceptable ways of behaving.
Bill is unemployed and very poor, and he hopes to get a mobile phone.Do you think this is a want or a need? Why?
Answer:
I think a want
Explanation:
Because he hopes to get one and he could use that money for food or bills and he could use a street phone and its way cheaper with using that.
Answer:
yes cuz the mobile phone is important and he can search for jobs on the internet or he can try opining an online business so he can earn money
Explanation:
One of the important features of deregulation is the way the private enterprises operate. How a country can bring this into activity. Conclude your opinion by giving examples of deregulation.
Deregulation is a mechanism that reduces or eliminates government regulation of business activities in a particular industry or sector. Deregulation is primarily aimed at increasing competition by lowering entry barriers to the industry, lowering the cost of doing business, and increasing innovation.
One of the important features of deregulation is the way private enterprises operate. In order to bring this into activity, countries should:
Encourage private participation in the business environment
Encourage domestic and foreign investment by providing a favorable tax environment
Introduce competition policies and laws that promote competitive behavior among market players
Provide a suitable legal framework to guide business operations
Give incentives for innovation and entrepreneurship
Examples of deregulation: The airline industry in the US was deregulated in 1978 by the Airline Deregulation Act.
Before deregulation, airlines needed to receive approval from the Civil Aeronautics Board before changing routes, fares, or adding new flights. The result of deregulation was an increase in the number of airlines and a decrease in fares.
The Telecommunications Act of 1996 deregulated the telecommunications industry in the US. The Act allowed for competition between telephone companies, cable companies, and internet service providers. It also required telecommunications companies to offer their services to all customers at reasonable rates.
The result of the deregulation was a decrease in the cost of long-distance phone calls and the emergence of new technology like Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).
The conclusion is that deregulation can have a positive impact on business operations, innovation, and competition.
Countries that want to bring this into activity should create a conducive environment for business operations, introduce competition policies, provide a suitable legal framework, and give incentives for innovation and entrepreneurship.
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Analyzing Effects: Consumer concerns about nutrition and obesity contribute to a decrease in white bread sales and an increase in sales of whole wheat bread. This change in consumer taste prompts a major manufacturer known for its white bread to enter the market with a whole wheat bread product. What effect will this action have on the supply and equilibrium price of whole wheat bread?
The major manufacturer entering the market will lead to an increase in the supply of whole wheat bread and a decrease in its equilibrium price.
As a result of the major manufacturer entering the whole wheat market:
Supply will increase because the major manufacturer will produce more bread to be sold.The equilibrium price will decrease because there will be more bread in the market relative to the demand for it.When the supply of something increases more than the demand, the price will drop because the good is now less scarce. This is the case here. The supply of the bread increased as a result of the major manufacturer, so the prices will decrease.
In conclusion, the major manufacturer will increase supply but also reduce prices.
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