according to the pre-1967 media stories, which of the following were the major dangers posed by the use of lysergic acid diethylamide (lsd)?

Answers

Answer 1

These dangers included the risk of psychotic reactions, including delusions and hallucinations, as well as the possibility of long-term psychological damage.

Prior to the 1967, media stories regarding the use of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) focused on the potential dangers of the drug. Some media outlets also highlighted the potential for LSD to trigger , and there were reports of accidents and injuries resulting from LSD induced impairment.

Additionally, there were concerns about the potential for LSD to be used as a tool for mind control or brainwashing, particularly in the context of Cold War era anxieties about Soviet mind control techniques. Overall media coverage of LSD in the pre 1967 era tended to emphasize the risks associated with the drug, rather than any potential benefits or positive aspects.

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Related Questions

a rice cooker was sold for $60 after a discount of 60% waht was the usual price of the rice cooker​

Answers

$150 Was the original price of the rice cooker

The nurse should check
the gauge frequently to
ensure that it is set at the
prescribed level and
check the oxygen flow
for any interruption or
blockage from an empty
tank, kinked tubing, or
other problems.

EXPLAIN

Answers

The nurse should check the meter frequently to make sure it is set at the prescribed level and check the oxygen flow for any interruptions or blockages, kinked tubing or other problems so that the patient does not experience interruption of the oxygen supply as it may lead to cardiac arrest.

What is cardiac arrest?

Respiratory arrest is the sudden cessation of breathing, that is, the cessation of inhaling and exhaling air. As a result, there is a lack of oxygen in the body's tissues, especially in vital organs, which need more oxygen, such as the heart and brain.

What leads to a cardiac arrest?

The causes of a cardiorespiratory arrest can be diverse, but the most frequent ones are related to the heart, for example: serious changes in heart rhythm. acute myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack.

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justine has a full-time job and three small children. she is interested in learning more about preparing healthy meals for her kids and asks her primary care provider for a referral to a nutrition professional. what is the credential of the nutrition professional who has completed a baccalaureate degree program approved by the accreditation council for education in nutrition and dietetics, performed at least 1200 hours of supervised professional practice, passed a national registration examination, and meets continuing education requirements?

Answers

The credential of the nutrition professional who has completed a baccalaureate degree program approved by the accreditation council for education in nutrition and dietetics, performed at least 1200 hours of supervised professional practice, passed a national registration examination, and meets continuing education requirements is a Registered Dietitian Nutritionist (RDN).

A Registered Dietitian Nutritionist has completed a four-year bachelor's degree at a minimum, as well as a dietetic internship totaling at least 1,200 hours. They have also passed a national registration examination administered by the Commission on Dietetic Registration. In order to maintain their credential, RDNs must complete continuing education requirements every five years. RDNs are the most qualified professionals to provide evidence-based nutrition information and counseling.

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Cycloidal gears; interchangeable set; 3 diametral pitch; radial flanks
on a 15-tooth gear. Addendum equals 1 in. ÷ diametral pitch.
Clearance equals
one-eighth of the addendum.
An 18-tooth pinion drives a 39-tooth annular.
show path of contact. How many teeth would there be in the smallest annular
that would gear with the 18-tooth pinion? Show path of contact.

Answers

There will be a minimum of 28 teeth in the annular gear that can gear with the 18-tooth pinion.

Given that the gears are Cycloidal gears; interchangeable set; 3 diametral pitch; radial flanks on a 15-tooth gear. Addendum equals 1 in. ÷ diametral pitch.

Clearance equals one-eighth of the addendum.

An 18-tooth pinion drives a 39-tooth annular. We are required to find the path of contact.

Path of contact in Cycloidal gears is a curve generated by a point on a circle rolling along a straight line.

The path of contact is represented by an arc of the pitch circle of each gear.

Cycloidal gears are a type of gear where the teeth have a rounded shape, in contrast to involute gears, which have a tooth profile that is involute in shape.

The rounded teeth allow for smoother engagement and less noise.

The addendum equals 1 in. ÷ diametral pitch, the clearance equals one-eighth of the addendum.

The diametral pitch is given to be 3.

Therefore, the addendum of the gear = 1/3 in

The clearance of the gear = 1/8 * (1/3) = 1/24 in

The base circle diameter = pitch circle diameter - 2 × (1/3) = 5/3 in.

The radius of the base circle = 5/6 in.

The radius of the addendum circle = 5/6 + 1/3 = 7/6 in.

The radius of the dedendum circle = 5/6 - 1/24 = 19/24 in.

The pitch circle diameter of the 15-tooth gear = 15/3 in = 5 in.

Now, to find the path of contact, we need to determine the value of the backlash.

Backlash is the amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth.

The recommended value of backlash for a cycloidal gear drive is 1% to 2% of the module.

For Cycloidal gears, the recommended backlash is 0.25 x modulus of the gear.

To find the minimum annular tooth that will gear with the 18-tooth pinion, we need to use the formula:

(N1 + N2)/P = (P1 + P2)/P = k,

where P = Diametral Pitch

k = 2 for Cycloidal gears,

N1 and N2 are the number of teeth on the gears 1 and 2 respectively,

and P1 and P2 are their respective pitch circles.

Substituting the values:N1 = 18, N2 = 39P = 3k = 2

Diameter of the pitch circle of the pinion = 18/3 in = 6 in

Diameter of the pitch circle of the annular = 39/3 in = 13 in

Using the formula above:(18 + N2)/6 = (13 + N2)/13

Solving the above equation gives us the value of N2 as 28 teeth.

The path of contact for the above problem is shown in the attached image.

Therefore, there will be a minimum of 28 teeth in the annular gear that can gear with the 18-tooth pinion.

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The base circle diameter of the smallest annular gear is calculated as, BD' = PD' - 2a' = 0.9 - 2/20 = 0.8 in

Given that 15-tooth gear has an addendum of 1 in/DP and clearance equals one-eighth of the addendum,

Addendum,

a = 1 in/DP => 1/3 in

Clearance, c = 1/8 * 1/DP => 1/24 in

Therefore, the outside diameter of the 15-tooth gear would be,

OD = PD + 2a = 15/3 + 2(1/3) = 7 in

Also, the pitch diameter of the gear is given as,

PD = N/DP = 15/3 = 5 in.

Now, the base circle diameter of the gear is calculated as,

BD = PD - 2a = 5 - 2/3 = 13/3 in

The path of contact between the mating gears is cycloidal in nature.

It is shown as follows:

Given that 18-tooth pinion drives a 39-tooth annular,

The diametral pitch, DP = 3

For minimum number of teeth, DP should be maximum, say DP' = 20For DP' = 20,

Number of teeth, N = PD' * DP' = 360/20 = 18

Now, the outside diameter of the smallest annular gear would be,

OD = PD' + 2a' = 18/20 + 2(1/20) = 0.95 in

Also, the pitch diameter of the gear is given as,

PD' = N/DP' = 18/20 = 0.9 in.

The base circle diameter of the smallest annular gear is calculated as,

BD' = PD' - 2a' = 0.9 - 2/20 = 0.8 in

The path of contact between the mating gears is shown below: 

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Some foods are nutrient-rich, while others are energy-rich yet nutrient-poor. Whole foods are the most nutrient dense because nutrients are left intact, which supports the best satiety cues (for example, an orange vs. orange juice), and overall confer the best outcome physiologically.
Three-day diet records are often used to get an idea of an individual’s overall dietary habits to determine average daily caloric intake and how nutrient-rich the diet is.
For the next three days, select the items that are richest in nutrients. Choose three items for each day’s breakfast.
Day 1 Breakfast Options
Choice
Bacon Butter Grape jelly Maple syrup Orange Orange juice Peanut butter (contains only peanuts) Regular bagels Regular cream cheese Strawberry Pop-Tarts Whole wheat bread Day 2 Breakfast Options
Choice
Banana Frozen waffles Nature Valley granola bars Orange juice Pancakes with syrup Regular bagels Regular cream cheese Scrambled eggs Skim milk Strawberry Pop-Tarts Variety pack of Quaker instant oatmeal Day 3 Breakfast Options
Choice
Box of regular Cheerios Frozen waffles Fruit Loops cereal Fruit on the bottom regular yogurt Nature Valley granola bars Orange juice Packaged roll of Pillsbury cinnamon rolls Plain Greek yogurt Regular bagels Skim milk Strawberry Pop-Tarts Foods provide our bodies with the energy, structural materials, and regulating agents we need to live. Although the body can make some of its own nutrients, it must obtain others through foods. These are essential nutrients called macronutrients, which provide our bodies with energy. They include carbohydrates, protein, and fat.
Vitamins do not provide the body with energy, but are essential for every function in your body. Without vitamins, many actions in the body would be impossible. Like vitamins, minerals do not provide energy, but play significant roles in the body.
Match the nutrient term that corresponds with the description of the nutrient given below. (Note: Each word can only be used once.)
Description
Nutrient
The macronutrient least used for fuel Number of vitamins The most nutrient-dense Number of kcals in a gram of carbohydrate Contained in orderly arrays in the bones and teeth Interferes with growth, maintenance, and repair of the body even though it is an energy source People have many different motivations for their dietary choices. Some people eat more when bored or alone, while others will only eat full meals during social interactions. Other factors include convenience, price, cultural influences, work day schedules, stores available for purchase (convenience store versus grocery store), and so on.
What is the likely motivation for a person giving up soup after an extended illness?
Negative associations
Habit
Values
Social interactions
Positive associations
Behavior change is a modification in human behavior. Changing unhealthy nutrition behaviors to healthy ones can be difficult due to a variety of reasons. Incorporating nutrient-dense foods into your meal plan is the recommended outcome. Consider your breakfast consumption. What would you have to change to include fruits, whole grains, and low-fat dairy in your meal?
Choose the radio button below the image that depicts an individual making a change in nutrition behavior that increases the nutrient richness of his/her diet.
Instead of ...
© atmoomoo/Shutterstock.com
Ordering fast food from a drive-thru
Deciding to switch to ...
© Ditty_about_summer / Shutterstock.com
Buying fresh food at a grocery store
Instead of ...
© atmoomoo/Shutterstock.com
Ordering fast food from a drive-thru
Deciding to switch to ...
© Lestertair/Shutterstock.com
Ordering food from a restaurant Instead of ...
© wavebreakmedia/Shutterstock.com
Drinking 100% juice
Deciding to switch to ...
© Nenad Milosevic/Shutterstock.com
Drinking fruit drink that is not 100% juice

Answers

To include fruits, whole grains, and low-fat dairy in breakfast, a person would likely need to change their current breakfast choices to more nutrient-dense options.

This could include swapping out processed foods like Pop-Tarts and regular bagels for whole wheat bread and oatmeal, choosing a banana or fresh orange instead of orange juice, and switching to plain Greek yogurt or skim milk instead of regular cream cheese.

How important is it to eat healthy foods with grains?

Eating healthy foods that include grains can be important for overall health and well-being. Grains, such as whole wheat, oats, quinoa, and brown rice, provide a variety of essential nutrients, including dietary fiber, vitamins, and minerals.

Dietary fiber, which is found in whole grains, is important for maintaining regular bowel movements and can also help lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. Whole grains are also a good source of B vitamins, such as thiamine, niacin, and folate, which are essential for energy metabolism and the maintenance of healthy nerve and red blood cells.

Whole grains also contain minerals such as iron, zinc, and magnesium. Iron is essential for the formation of red blood cells, zinc is important for a healthy immune system, and magnesium plays a role in maintaining normal nerve and muscle function.

Additionally, consuming whole grains has been linked with a lower risk of chronic conditions such as heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers. Whole grains also provide a good source of carbohydrates which is the body's main source of energy.

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What makes opioids, or other drugs, so difficult to stop abusing once you are addicted?

Answers

Answer:

Opioids trigger the release of endorphins which muffles your perception of pain and boost feelings of pleasure, creating a temporary but powerful sense of well-being. When the dose wears off, you will often yourself wanting those good feelings back, as soon as possible.

Explanation:

and
Two types of monocular depth cues are
A. motion parallax. .. pictorial depth cues
B. convergence...retinal disparity
C. motion parallax...retinal disparity
D. convergence... pictorial depth cues

Answers

A. Motion parallax and pictorial depth cues. Explain: There are those that depend only upon what’s available on a statistic page, called pictorial death cues, used by crivelli and other artist that and those rely on the perception of motion, called Motion parallax, or relative motion. Hope this help.

Answer:

A. Motion parallax and pictorial depth cues

Explanation:

100% on edge2020

What is the major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia.

Answers

The major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia is the cause and type of information that is forgotten.

What is amnesia?

This is a disease or condition in which it is difficult for patients to remember specific information.

What is dissociative amnesia?

This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember relevant information such as one's name, one's location, specific events or feelings.

This is often caused due to traumatic events or stress.

What is retrograde amnesia?

This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember information from their past. This means patients can remember the events that are happening today, but not the ones yesterday, last year, etc.

This is often caused by brain injury or diseases such as Alzheimer's disease or a cardiac arrest.

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A 2-year-old client presents to the provider's office for their well child visit. The nurse notes several bruises on the child's back and bilateral arms at different stages of healing. What should the nurse's next action be?

Answers

The nurse should report the observation of bruises to the provider, document the findings accurately, and be prepared to give a concise report and answer any questions.

The nurse’s next action in the scenario where a 2-year-old client presents to the provider's office for their well-child visit and the nurse notes several bruises on the child's back and bilateral arms at different stages of healing should be to report the observation to the provider.

The nurse should record objective data and prepare the necessary documentation concerning the observations made. In this case, the child's physical assessment should be reported to the provider. The nurse's observations should be comprehensive, including data such as the description of bruises, location, size, and any other visible marks. The findings should be appropriately documented in the child's medical record.It is also essential to keep a factual record of the objective data and avoid making any conclusions based on assumptions.

The nurse should notify the provider of the findings and document the notification. The nurse should be prepared to give an accurate and concise report of the child's physical assessment to the provider and answer any questions the provider may have concerning the findings.

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Which of the following amalgam types tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact? A. Admix B. Spherical C. Lathe-cut D. All of the aboveTerm

Answers

The amalgam type which tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut.

What is amalgam?Amalgam is a dental filling material that has been used for over 150 years to restore decayed teeth. It is made up of a mixture of metals, including silver, tin, copper, and mercury. When these metals are mixed together, they form a soft, pliable material that can be packed into a cavity in a tooth. Over time, the amalgam hardens and becomes a strong, durable filling material.Amalgam restorations are one of the most common types of restorations used to repair cavities.

They are durable, long-lasting, and relatively inexpensive. However, there are some disadvantages to using amalgam as a filling material. One of these is that it can be difficult to get a good proximal contact with the adjacent tooth, especially in class II restorations.

The type of amalgam that tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut. Lathe-cut amalgam is made by grinding a mixture of metals into a powder. This powder is then compressed into a solid block and sliced into pieces. Lathe-cut amalgam tends to be more brittle than other types of amalgam, which makes it less likely to deform and displace the matrix band.

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The veterinarian has prescribed 0.22 mg/kg of hydrocodone PO q12 h x 10d.
The concentration is 1.5 mg tablet.
Weight of dog: 15 lbs

Calculate the amount of medication needed for 10 days.

Answers

Hydrocodone is a controlled substance used as an analgesic and antitussive in dogs. It is essential to follow the veterinarian's directions when administering hydrocodone to a dog. Hydrocodone comes in 1.5 mg tablets that should be given orally every 12 hours for ten days.

The veterinarian has prescribed hydrocodone at a dose of 0.22 mg/kg, and the dog weighs 15 pounds. We must first convert the dog's weight to kilograms to calculate the dose.

There are 2.2 pounds in a kilogram, so we must divide the dog's weight in pounds by 2.2.15 pounds/2.2 = 6.8 kg The dog's weight is 6.8 kg. Next, we must determine the dose by multiplying the dog's weight by the prescribed dose.6.8 kg x 0.22 mg/kg = 1.496 mg The dog needs 1.496 mg of hydrocodone per dose.

The concentration of hydrocodone is 1.5 mg per tablet. We must divide the dose by the concentration to determine how many tablets to give the dog.1.496 mg ÷ 1.5 mg per tablet = 1 tablet. The dog needs one 1.5 mg tablet every 12 hours for ten days. Therefore, we need a total of 20 tablets to complete the course of treatment.

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a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:

Answers

According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.

What do doctors do for tachycardia?

A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.

What causes tachycardia most frequently?

Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.

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The client was admitted to the hospital with hypertension. The development of arteriosclerosis has increased peripheral resistance to blood flow, worsening his hypertension. This is an example of what type of feedback loop and why

Answers

Answer:

Positive feedback loops

Explanation:

arteriosclerotic hypertension results in positive feedback mechanisms that enhance and propagate the initial step in the chain of events, which is hypertension

What consequences would there be if the problem wasn't diagnosed quickly and correctly?

Answers

The consequences of not diagnosing the problem quickly and correctly are  :

Wrong drug administration Escalation of the medical problemImproper diagnosis

Medical problem

A medical problem is a disorder found in humans which includes all various kinds of diseases, lesions and injuries.

When a medical problem is not diagnosed on time and correctly. there are bound to be some consequences that would arise and some of these consequences includes

The wrong drug administration Improper diagnosis and Escalation of the medical problem

Hence In Conclusion the consequences of not  diagnosing the problem quickly and correctly are as listed above.

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How many people have successfully quit using amphetamines?

Help Please. provide statistics

Answers

Answer:

1.Heroin and prescription painkillers

2.Cocaine

3.Methamphetamine & Crystal Meth

4.Benzodiazepines

5.Nicotine

6.Alcohol

When the study of practice distribution refers to the length of the intertrial interval, one of the problems has been that researchers have generally failed to consider the relationship of the type of skill to the practice distribution effect. T/F

Answers

True. The study of practice distribution is concerned with how often practice sessions should be spaced out over time, and the length of the intertrial interval is a key factor in determining this.

However, one of the challenges in studying practice distribution is that researchers often overlook the impact of the type of skill being learned on the effectiveness of different practice schedules. For instance, some skills may require longer intervals between practice sessions, while others may benefit from more frequent practice. To fully understand the practice distribution effect, researchers must take into account the nature of the skill being learned and how it affects the optimal practice schedule.

To gain a more comprehensive understanding of practice distribution, it's crucial to consider the type of skill involved and how it may impact the outcomes.

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5. LSD is produced from ergot, a fungus that is found on some plants and grasses.
True
False

Answers

Answer:

That would be true.

Explanation:

ginger Williams has pain in her heel caused by a calcium deposit. This calcium deposit is known as a

Answers

Answer:

it's known as a heels spur

Joseph’s prescrition contains the following instructions the pharmacy will translate instructions as


Gtts.prn

Answers

Translation is- Drops as needed

Which of the following can be compounded in a segregated compounding area (SCA)?

Answers

Segregated compounding area means a designated space, either a demarcated area or room, which is restricted to preparing low-risk preparations with 12-hour or less beyond-use date.

CSPs have longer BUDs and are made in a cleanroom suite. When determining BUDs for Category 2 CSPs, the updated "797" outlines a number of variables to take into account, including the aseptic processing and sterilizing procedure, beginning components, sterility testing, and storage conditions.

If additional criteria are satisfied, Category 3 CSPs may be awarded BUDs that are up to 180 days longer than those for Category 1 or Category 2 CSPs. For all CSPs needing sterility testing, a cap of 250 ultimate yield units per batch has been added.

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What is it called when groups of drugs have similar effects and actions on the body?

Answers

Drugs that have similar effects and actions on the body are known as drug classes. Drug classes are typically established based on the drug’s mechanism of action and the way it interacts with various biological systems in the body.

In general, drugs in the same class have similar chemical structures and thus, similar effects on the body. Examples of drug classes include opioids, anti-anxiety medications, anticonvulsants, and antidepressants. Each drug class has different therapeutic effects, such as decreasing pain, reducing anxiety, and preventing seizures, respectively.

Drugs in the same class can have different potencies, side effects, and interactions with other medications, so it is important for pharmacists and healthcare providers to be knowledgeable about the particular drug and its formal class before prescribing it to a patient.

Knowing a drug’s class helps healthcare professionals to be aware of potential side effects, drug interactions, and different dosage and potency levels, to ensure that the most effective and safest treatment is chosen for each patient.

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What are the kidney stones made from, and what are the cuases and treatments?

Answers

Kidney stones are hard deposits made from minerals and salts, primarily calcium oxalate, but they can also be made of uric acid or struvite. The formation of kidney stones is caused by various factors, including dehydration, genetics, obesity, certain medications, and medical conditions such as gout, hyperparathyroidism, and urinary tract infections.

Treatment for kidney stones depends on the size, location, and composition of the stone. Small stones can often be passed through the urinary tract with pain medication and increased fluid intake. Larger stones may require shock wave lithotripsy, a procedure that uses sound waves to break up the stone, or ureteroscopy, a minimally invasive procedure that uses a small scope to remove the stone.

In some cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the stone. Preventative measures, such as increasing water intake, reducing salt and animal protein intake, and taking medication to prevent stone formation, may also be recommended.

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immediately after a burn injury, electrolytes need to be evaluated for a major indicator of massive cell destruction, which is:

Answers

Immediately after a burn injury, electrolytes need to be evaluated for a major indicator of massive cell destruction, which is Hyperkalemia.

What must be done first things first following a burn?

Making sure the airway (breathing passages) stays open is the top priority in treating burn victims. The likelihood of an associated smoke inhalation injury is high, especially if the patient suffered burns within a room or other enclosed structure. Smoke inhalation can happen to patients who have been burned in the open as well.

A higher-than-normal potassium level in your blood is referred to medically as hyperkalemia. A molecule called potassium is essential for the health of your heart's muscle and nerve cells. The typical range for your blood potassium level is 3.6 to 5.2 millimoles per liter.

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HELP PLEASE WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST
Match each of the following psychologists to the correct descriptions by entering the letter that
corresponds with the description. After you've filled in all the answers, click on the puzzle pieces next to
the answer spaces to check your success, Print this page to save your answers,
Motobin

HELP PLEASE WILL GIVE BRAINLIESTMatch each of the following psychologists to the correct descriptions

Answers

First a b d f g h I c e I

Answer:

B J F A C G I D H E

Explanation:

the one above is wrong

Forming new lymphocytes is a function of the:

A. nervous system.

B. integumentary system

C. skeletal system.

D. immune system.

Answers

D, the answer is immune system. The lymphocytes are part of the immune system!

Both start as bone marrow stem cells and look similar. Some lymphocytes mature into T cells in the thymus, while others become B cells in the bone marrow. Therefore, option (C) is correct

What are lymphocytes?

Most animals have lymphocytes as a sort of white blood cell in their immune systems. Natural killer cells, T cells, and B cells are examples of lymphocytes. They are the primary class of cells in lymph, thus the term "lymphocyte." Between 18% and 42% of the white blood cells that are in circulation are lymphocytes.

Both initially resemble one another and derive from stem cells in the bone marrow. While some lymphocytes remain in the bone marrow and develop into B cells in humans, others move to the thymus and mature into T cells there.

Therefore, option (C) is correct.

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After applying a bandage, you notice the fingers below the injury site are becoming cool to the touch. What might be the reason for this, and how can you remedy the situation

Answers

Answer:

there could be lack of circulation from blood flow to the fingers

Explanation:

How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?

Answers

Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.

David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.

David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.

Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.

This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.

Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.

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Overcoming challenges to cultural competence in research requires that: (Check ALL that apply)

Answers

Answer: • Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.

• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.

• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.

Explanation:

Cultural competence in research refers to the ability of researchers to provide high quality research whereby the culture and the diversity of the population is taken into account during the development of the research ideas and when conducting the research.

The requirements for cultural competence include:

• Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.

• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.

• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.

The doctor ordered Claforan 1400mg IM every 12 hours. The directions for the 2 gm vial state: Add 5 mL of diluent to yield an approximate concentration of 360mg/mL. How many mL will you give?

Answers

You will have to give 1200ml

a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication.prior to administering the medication, the nurse uses an electronic database to gather 25information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. which ofthe following components of critical thinking is the nurse using when he reviews themedication information

Answers

A. CORRECT: By using the electronic database, the nurse takes the initiative to increase his knowledge base, which is the first component of critical thinking.

B. INCORRECT: The nurse has had no prior experience with administering this medication to this client.

C. INCORRECT: Intuition requires experience, which the nurse lacks in administering this medication to this client.

D. INCORRECT: Competence involves making judgments, but no one can make a judgment about how the nurse handles researching and administering this medication to this client until he performs those tasks.

Antihypertensive is a type of drug used to treat high blood pressure. There are many different types of antihypertensive agents, and they work in different ways to lower blood pressure. Some remove extra fluid and salt from the body. Others relax and widen the blood vessels or slow the heartbeat. Blood pressure medications (antihypertensives) are medicines that bring your blood pressure down in various ways.

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