Find the average value of 4(x + 1) f(x) = x2 over the interval [2; 4] (6) 3.2 The velocity of a bullet from a rifle can be approximated by v(t) = 6400t2 – 6505t + 2686 where t is seconds after the shot and v is the velocity measured in feet per second. This equation only models the velocity for the first half-second after the shot. What is the average velocity of the first half second?

The probability that one of the pulled cards is double the value of the other is 0.0101.

Consider the possibility of the first card being double or the second card being doubled. There are 50 possible combinations if the first card is doubled. When the first card is double, the second card has a 1/99 chance of being the half-card

The probability of the first card being doubled is as follows:

= 50 × 1/100 × 1/99

So the probability of drawing two cards, where one is double the other, is:

= 2 × 1/2 × 1/99 or 0.0101

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216cm^2

Volume of cube= 216 ft^3

l^3= 216

l= Cube root of 216

l= 6

SA=6*l^2

=6*6*6

=216 cm^2

Answer:

Z

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

58.3°

Step-by-step explanation:

Missing Information:

In this question the diagram is missing Following are the attachment of diagram of the given question.

As we seen that the vertex c is making the right angle i,e 90°  also there is an acute angle the Hypotenuse: 20 cm and the perpendicular is 10.5 cm

Now we have find the best approximation of the angle ABC used the cosx  trigonometric function.

\(cos\ x\ =\ \frac{perpendicular}{Hypotenuse} \\\)

Putting the value of perpendicular and hypotenuse in the previous formula we get

\(cos\ x\ =\ \frac{10.5\ cm}{20\ cm} \\\)

\(x\ =cos^{-1}\ 0.525\\x \ = \ 58.33\)

Answer:

58.3

Step-by-step explanation:

jus did the test review on EDGE! :)

Answer:

5⁴

Step-by-step explanation:

5⁴÷5²×5²​

\(5^{2}\) x \(5^{2}\)

\(5^{4}\)

Answer:

PK = 75

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the triangles are similar then the ratios of corresponding sides are equal, that is

\(\frac{PK}{WK}\) = \(\frac{AK}{NK}\) , substitute values

\(\frac{PK}{54}\) = \(\frac{62.5}{45}\) ( cross- multiply )

45 PK = 3375 ( divide both sides by 45 )

PK = 75

True. The Pearson correlation coefficient (r) measures the strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables, such as x and y.

The regression equation is used to make predictions or estimate the value of one variable (dependent variable) based on the value of another variable (independent variable).

When the correlation coefficient (r) is higher (closer to 1 or -1), it indicates a stronger linear relationship between the variables. In this case, when r = 0.80, it suggests a stronger linear relationship between x and y compared to when r = 0.60.

A stronger linear relationship between the variables implies that the regression equation will produce more accurate predictions. This is because the relationship between the variables is better captured by the regression model when there is a stronger correlation. Therefore, when r = 0.80, the regression equation is expected to provide more accurate predictions compared to when r = 0.60.

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The price after the discount but before tax including 35% will be $26.65.

The percentage is defined as a given amount in every hundred. It is a fraction with 100 as the denominator percentage is represented by the one symbol %.

The percentage is also called the indicating hundredths. Thus, 2% is two-hundredth, which means 2%=2/100=0.02.

As per the given,

Price tag = $41

35% on $41 will be given as,

⇒ (35/100)41 = $14.35

Price after discount = price tag - discount

⇒ $41 - $14.35 = $26.65

Hence "The cost will be $26.65 after the discount but before the 35% tax.".

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The graph of the inequality x ≤ 6y represents the shaded region below the line on a coordinate plane. The line has a slope of 1/6 and a y-intercept of 0.

To graph the inequality, plot the y-intercept at the origin (0,0), and use the slope to find additional points. Then, draw a line through these points. Finally, shade the region below the line to represent the solution set.

The graph of the inequality x ≤ 6y is a line with a slope of 1/6 and a y-intercept of 0. This means that for every unit increase in the x-coordinate, the y-coordinate increases by 1/6.

To graph the line, plot the point (0,0) at the y-intercept. From this point, move 6 units to the right and 1 unit up to find another point on the line. Connect these two points to draw the line.

Since the inequality is x ≤ 6y, we want to shade the region below the line to represent all the points that satisfy the inequality. This is because any point below the line will have a corresponding x-value less than or equal to 6 times the y-value.

Therefore, the shaded region below the line represents the solution set for the inequality x ≤ 6y.

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The flood frequency curve for the Navasota River, a flood event with a discharge of 60,000 cubic feet per second has a recurrence interval of approximately X years.

The flood frequency curve is a graphical representation that shows the relationship between the discharge of a river during a flood event and the recurrence interval of that event.
To find the recurrence interval for a given discharge, you need to locate the discharge value of 60,000 cubic feet per second on the flood frequency curve.

Once you find this point, you can read the corresponding recurrence interval on the curve.
Keep in mind that the flood frequency curve is specific to the Navasota River, so the recurrence interval you find will be specific to that river. Different rivers will have different flood frequency curves due to variations in geography, climate, and other factors.

However, you can consult the flood frequency curve for the Navasota River to find the approximate recurrence interval for a flood event with a discharge of 60,000 cubic feet per second.

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Answer:

She bakes 160 cookies in all.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that Alyssa bakes cookies for the bake sale. 35% of the cookies are chocolate chip and 56 of the cookies are chocolate chip.

Let the total number of cookies baked by Alyssa be 'x'.

Number of chocolate chip = 56

So, according to the question;

35% of total cookies = 56

35% of x = 56

\(\frac{35}{100} \times x = 56\)

\(x=\frac{56\times 100}{35}\)

\(x= 8 \times 20\) = 160 cookies

Hence, Alyssa bakes 160 cookies for the bake sale.

The area of the square is 1/4inches² in square inches

The area of a square is calculated by multiplying its two sides, that is area = s × s, where, 's' is one side of the square.

The square has side of length = 6/12

this can be simplified as 1/2

so

area of the square = (1/2 × 1/2) inches ²

area of the square = 1/4inches²

Thus, the area of the square is calculated using area = s × s, as 1/4inches²

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Answer:

The measure of angle 3 is 30 (C).

Step-by-step explanation:

m<1, m<2, and m<3 have a sum of 180        Linear Pair Postulate

So 2x + 3x - 20 + x - 4 = 180

6x - 24 = 180

6x = 204

x = 34

Then you substitute and get 34 - 4 for angle 3 which = 4

Hope this helps!

Answer:

D for question 3 and 8n^2 for question 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

\begin{align*}

T_{1,1} &= \frac{1}{2} (f(0) + f(1)) \\

&= \frac{1}{2} (1 + \frac{1}{2}) \\

&= \frac{3}{4}

\end{align*}

Now, for two subintervals:

\begin{align*}

T_{2,1} &= \frac{1}{4} (f(0) + 2f(1/2) + f(1)) \\

&= \frac{1}{4} \left(1 + 2 \left(\frac{1}{1 + \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2}\right) + \frac{1}{1^2}\right) \\

&= \frac{1}{4} \left(1 + 2 \left(\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{4}}\right) + 1\right) \\

&= \frac{1}{4} \left(1 + 2 \left(\frac{1}{\frac{5}{4}}\right) + 1\right) \\

&= \frac{1}{4} \left(1 + 2 \cdot \frac{4}{5} + 1\right) \\

&= \frac{1}{4} \left(1 + \frac{8}{5} + 1\right) \\

&= \frac{1}{4} \left(\frac{5}{5} + \frac{8}{5} + \frac{5}{5}\right)

\end{align*}

Thus, the approximate value of the integral using Romberg's method is T_2,1, and this can also be used to obtain an approximate value of π.

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Answer:

cant see the picture

Step-by-step explanation:

Question 9: The utility value cannot be calculated without the specific values for "1" and "%".

Question 10: The marginal rate of substitution (MRS) between pizza and pork chop cannot be calculated without further information about the utility function and the specific values for PC, FC, PZ, and Coste.

Question 11: To find the optimal amount of x1, we need to solve the equation 7 - 23P1 / P2 = 0 for x1.

A utility function, in economics, is a mathematical representation that quantifies an individual's preferences or satisfaction derived from consuming goods or services. It is used to model the behavior of consumers and their choices in decision-making processes.

Question 9: To find the utility, we need to substitute the given values into the utility function U = -104×1 + 16%2.
In the given utility function, U = -104×1 + 16%2,

we need to calculate the value of U by substituting the given values. However, the values for "1" and "%" are not provided, so we cannot calculate the utility. Therefore, the answer for question 9 cannot be determined.

Question 10: To find MRS(pizza, pork chop), we need to calculate the marginal rate of substitution between pizza and pork chop, which is the ratio of the change in utility to the change in pizza.

The given utility function is U = 104PC + 150FC - 104PZ - 43Coste,

where PC represents the number of pork chops, FC represents the number of fried chicken pieces, PZ represents the number of pizza slices, and Coste represents the cost in dollars of lunch.

To find the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) between pizza (PZ) and pork chop (PC), we need to take the derivative of the utility function with respect to PZ and divide it by the derivative of the utility function with respect to PC.
MRS(PZ, PC) = ∂U/∂PZ / ∂U/∂PC

Since the utility function does not explicitly depend on PZ or PC, the derivatives with respect to PZ and PC will be zero. Therefore, the MRS cannot be calculated without more specific information.

Question 11: To find the optimal amount of x1, we need to maximize the utility function U = 7x1 + 23x2, subject to the given prices P1 = 37 and

P2 = 8, and the budget constraint

2438 = P1x1 + P2x2.

The given utility function is U = 7x1 + 23x2,

where x1 represents the amount of good 1 and x2 represents the amount of good 2.

To find the optimal amount of x1, we need to maximize the utility function subject to the budget constraint. This can be done using the Lagrange multiplier method or by solving the budget constraint for x2 and substituting it into the utility function.

By solving the budget constraint for x2, we get

x2 = (2438 - P1x1) / P2.

Substituting this expression for x2 into the utility function, we get

U = 7x1 + 23((2438 - P1x1) / P2).

To find the optimal amount of x1, we take the derivative of the utility function with respect to x1 and set it equal to zero.

dU/dx1 = 7 - 23P1 / P2

= 0

Solving this equation for x1 will give us the optimal amount of x1.

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Answer:

x= -1

x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3 family members get 126 text messages each

1 family member gets 127 text messages

Step-by-step explanation:

If you were finding the exact division of texts, 505 texts / 4 people, you would end up with 126.25 texts.

However, you can't get 0.25 of a text. If we take back each family member's 0.25 text, they will all be left with 126 texts (with an extra text leftover)

This extra text is considered the "remainder", meaning the amount left over when a number is divided [when it doesn't go into the larger number evenly]. The only importance/relevancy of a remainder is when a value cannot be split, such as a dog or a text.

So, we can give each family member 126 texts, and then we can give one family member an additional text, so that all texts are distributed.

This means that 3 family members get 126 texts, and 1 family member gets 127 texts

hope this helps!!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Starting with the left-hand side:

(1 + tan x) cot x

= (1 + sin x / cos x) cos x / sin x (using the definitions of tangent and cotangent)

= (cos x + sin x) / sin x

= cos x / sin x + sin x / sin x

= cot x + 1/csc x

= cot x + sin x / cos x

= (cos x / cos x) cot x + sin x / cos x

= sec x cot x + (sin x / cos x) csc x

= sec x cot x + tan x csc x

= sec x csc x (using the identity sec x = 1/cos x and csc x = 1/sin x)

Therefore, the left-hand side equals the right-hand side, and the identity is proven:

(1 + tan x) cot x = sec x csc x

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Answer:

no solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

−3(x + 3) = −3(x + 1) − 5

Distribute

-3x -9 = -3x -3 -5

Combine like terms

-3x -9 = -3x-8

Add 3x to each side

-9 = -8

Since this is never true, there are not solutions

The maximum limit to add the videos or images in Carousel is 10MB and the aspect ratio to add the images or videos is 1:1

There are many applications that are present where the videos and images can be added in the websites. The maximum images in the in few website is nine, but in carousel is 10MB of size and also it can be added up to 1:1 ratio of aspect size. The Carousel also allows the user to add slides and images. It helps to add the graphical representation.

The size of the videos must be from 60 seconds to 30 seconds of size and also the video includes the visual templets that help the user to have the presentation in an effective ways. There are many templets that also helps the  user to present in a professional way.  The carousel is a cloud representation that helps to create the slideshow online and also present it in the blockage videos. The online photos and images can also be added.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Profitability index is 1.387. Thus, the correct option is (c) 1.387.

The formula for calculating the profitability index is:

P.I = PV of Future Cash Flows / Initial Investment

Where,

P.I is the profitability index

PV is the present value of future cash flows

The initial investment in the project is $30 million. The cash flow at the end of the first year is $2.85 million.

The present value of cash flows can be calculated using the formula:

PV = CF / (1 + r)ⁿ

Where,

PV is the present value of cash flows

CF is the cash flow in the given period

r is the discount rate

n is the number of periods

For the first-year cash flow, n = 1, CF = $2.85 million, and r = 11%.

Substituting the values, we get:

PV = 2.85 / (1 + 0.11)¹ = $2.56 million

To calculate the present value of all future cash flows, we can use the formula:

PV = CF / (r - g)

Where,

PV is the present value of cash flows

CF is the cash flow in the given period

r is the discount rate

g is the constant growth rate

For the subsequent years, CF = $2.85 million, r = 11%, and g = 3.85%.

Substituting the values, we get:

PV = 2.85 / (0.11 - 0.0385) = $39.90 million

The total present value of cash flows is the sum of the present value of the first-year cash flow and the present value of all future cash flows.

PV of future cash flows = $39.90 million + $2.56 million = $42.46 million

Profitability index (P.I) = PV of future cash flows / Initial investment

= 42.46 / 30

= 1.387

Therefore, the correct option is (c) 1.387.

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Answer:

Not effective: 31.5%

Effective: 68.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

200

First we need to figure out how many tests they did :)

20 x 10 = 200

Now lets divide to see the percentage of how effective and not effective it is :)

Not effective: 31.5%

63/200 = 0.315 x 100 = 31.5

Effective: 68.5%

137/200 = 0.685 x 100 = 68.5

Have an amazing day!!

Please rate and mark brainliest!!

Answer:

Not effective: 31.5%

Effective: 68.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

como proporción de dos tipos de tela es diferente.

por lo tanto, la relación entre el número de yardas cuadradas y el costo

no es proporcional entre los dos tipos de tejido

Explicación paso a paso:

Para que una relacion sea proporcional

a:b = c:d

en otra forma

a/b = c/d

______________________________________________

Proporción para el primer tipo de tejido

costo de tela/ área de tela = 31.25/5 = 6.25

Ratio para otro tipo de tejido

costo de tela/ área de tela = 71.50/11 = 6.5

como proporción de dos tipos de tela es diferente.

por lo tanto, la relación entre el número de yardas cuadradas y el costo

no es proporcional entre los dos tipos de tejido

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a on edge

Step-by-step explanation:

A collector offers to buy state quarters for 2000% of their face value. The face value of each quarter is 25 cents. At that rate 20 dollars Bryden will get for his four state quarters.

In the given question, a collector offers to buy state quarters for 2000% of their face value.

The face value of each quarter is 25 cents.

We have to find at that rate how many dollars Bryden will get for his four state quarters.

As given that,

Collector buy state quarters = 2000% of their face value

We can write 2000% as 20×100%.

It means that state quarters is 20 times of their face value.

As we know that, 4 quarter is equal to the one dollar. So,

Bryden get for his four state quarters = 20×1 dollars

Bryden get for his four state quarters = 20 dollars

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