How often does the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommend that radiographic imaging be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay

Answers

Answer 1

According to the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), radiographic imaging should be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay every 6 to 12 months. This recommendation is based on individualized assessments of each child's dental health needs, taking into account factors such as their age, dental history, risk factors for tooth decay, and overall oral health. The AAPD also emphasizes the importance of using the lowest possible radiation exposure for radiographic imaging, as well as following appropriate safety guidelines and protocols to minimize risks to children.

Answer 2

The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD) recommends that radiographic imaging be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay on an individualized basis, based on their specific risk factors and clinical presentation.

This means that there is no set frequency or timeline for radiographic imaging in these children. Rather, dental professionals should assess each child's risk factors, such as previous decay experience, oral hygiene habits, diet, and other factors, and use their clinical judgment to determine if and when radiographs are necessary.

The AAPD's guidelines stress the importance of personalized care and risk assessment, and recommend that dental professionals consider a variety of factors when making decisions about radiographic imaging in children at high risk for tooth decay.

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Related Questions

Heavy drinking during pregnancy can cause ________ Group of answer choices fetal alcohol syndrome. incomplete fusion of the spinal canal in the child. aggressiveness and withdrawal in the child. premature birth and higher rates of still-births.

Answers

Answer:

agreessivness and withdraw in the child.

Explanation:

to reduce alcohol's negative effects on the developing fetus, pregnant women are advised to consume .

Answers

Women who are pregnant or who are trying to get pregnant should avoid drinking any amount of alcohol. The only way to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome is to not drink alcohol during pregnancy. If you did not know you were pregnant and drank alcohol, stop drinking as soon as you learn you are pregnant.

Your infant will be healthier if you quit drinking alcohol as soon as possible.

Select non-alcoholic versions of your favorite drinks.

Avoid being around folks who are drinking if you can't control your own consumption.

Alcohol addiction rehabilitation programmes should be joined by pregnant women who are alcoholics. They should be closely monitored by a healthcare professional as well.

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Hi, I am trying to calculate the dosage of mg i should be taking per night. I am 135 pounds 5’7.

Hi, I am trying to calculate the dosage of mg i should be taking per night. I am 135 pounds 57.

Answers

So you are ok one this

Jason studies Spanish for three years, and then switches to Pashto. When asked to remember Spanish vocabulary he can’t, instead he can only remember Pashto vocabulary. This is an example of ________ interference.



active



inactive



proactive



retroactive

Answers

Answer:

Inactive

Explanation:

he was not active in spanish

The correct reporting for stage 4 chronic kidney disease associated with diabetes Mel lotus, type 2?

Answers

you need to stop cheating on your collage classes because you really need to know this stuff when you have to save someone’s life. the answer is a

19. All of the following are parts of a fear-free veterinary visit except which one?
O A. Minimal time in waiting room
O B. Discharge
O C. Boarding
O D. Calm exam room

Answers

B. Boarding
If you are admitted, there is obviously something wrong that is the cause for fear

absolute contraindications to estrogen therapy
a. a. hx of any type of cancer
b. clotting disorders
c. hx of tension headaches
d. orthostatic hypotension

Answers

Explanation:

A. HX of any type of cancer

A client who is dying jokes about the situation even though the client is becoming sicker and weaker. which is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

Answers

A client who is dying jokes about the situation even though the client is becoming sicker and weaker. The most therapeutic response by the nurse is "Does it help to joke about your illness?".

What is therapeutic effect?

Helpful impact alludes to the reaction after a treatment of any sort, the consequences of which are decided to be valuable or ideal. Helpful impact A restorative impact is an outcome of the clinical treatment of any sort, the consequences of which are decided to be attractive and gainful. This is valid whether the outcome was normal, surprising, or even a potentially negative side-effect of the treatment. What is a remedial impact versus a secondary effect involves both the idea of the circumstance and the objectives of treatment. No innate contrast isolates remedial and undesired incidental effects; the two reactions are social/physiologic changes that happen as a reaction to the treatment system or specialist.

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Using approximately 250-300 words and APA 7th Edition citations and references as appropriate, give examples of three major zoonotic diseases and compare their modes of transmission. Using your own ideas, explain how transmission of these zoonotic diseases might be prevented.

Answers

Zoonotic diseases are infections that can be transmitted between animals and humans. This response provides examples of three major zoonotic diseases, namely Rabies, Lyme disease, and Avian Influenza, and compares their modes of transmission. It then discusses potential strategies for preventing the transmission of these diseases.

Rabies is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, commonly dogs, bats, raccoons, or foxes. The virus is present in the saliva of infected animals and can enter the human body through broken skin or mucous membranes.

Lyme disease is transmitted by the bite of infected black-legged ticks, commonly known as deer ticks. Ticks acquire the bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi) by feeding on infected animals, such as mice or deer. Humans can get infected when bitten by an infected tick.

Avian Influenza, also known as bird flu, is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected birds or their droppings. In rare cases, the virus can be transmitted from birds to humans, causing severe respiratory illness. Human-to-human transmission is limited but can occur under certain circumstances.

Preventing the transmission of zoonotic diseases involves a multi-faceted approach:

Education and awareness: Promoting public education about the risks and preventive measures associated with zoonotic diseases, such as avoiding contact with wild or stray animals, practicing safe handling of pets, and proper tick avoidance techniques.

Vector control: Implementing measures to control disease-carrying vectors, such as ticks and mosquitoes, through the use of insecticides, habitat modification, and personal protective measures like wearing protective clothing and using insect repellents.

Vaccination: Vaccinating animals against zoonotic diseases, particularly pets and livestock, can help prevent their transmission to humans. Vaccination programs for animals, such as dogs and cats, can significantly reduce the risk of diseases like rabies.

Hygiene practices: Promoting good hygiene practices, including regular handwashing, proper food handling, and safe disposal of animal waste, can minimize the risk of infection.

Surveillance and early detection: Establishing surveillance systems to detect zoonotic diseases in animals and humans, enabling prompt identification, isolation, and treatment of infected individuals.

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1. What characteristics of Jb put him at high risk for suucide

Answers

Answer:

maybe he is showing signs and maybe he is posting this on social media and his grades are going down. but if his life is terrible not going to great for him then that might be why he is thinking that. he does not care about life anymore. he is dead inside

Explanation:

What should George do when he encounters a new word?

Answers

When George encounters a new word. He should read the words carefully by going through them in books and can listen carefully to the words in online lectures.

What is vocabulary?

Vocabulary is the word and meaning of any book or language.

George has the ability to break down words in such a way that he memorizes less and understands more.

Learn more about the origin and structure of medical words and discuss them with his colleagues more frequently.

Therefore, when George comes upon a new word. He should carefully read the words in books, and he might carefully listen to the words in online courses.

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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:

George Tomlin, RMA, has been working for several years in a specialty practice. He applies for a position closer to his home with better hours and more pay. This office, however, sees patients with a variety of illnesses. For the first time since he graduated from college, he is encountering words and procedures with which he is not familiar.

What can you use to suppress nighttime asthma

Answers

Answer: In addition to taking asthma medications as prescribed, here are seven steps you can take to lower your chances of having a nighttime asthma attack:

Clean your bedroom regularly. Wash your bedding in hot water weekly. Invest in dust-proof mattress and pillow protectors. Invest in a humidifier. Don't sleep with petsChoose allergy-free linens.Sleep on a slight incline.

Explaation:

the combining form that means cause (of disease) is

Answers

The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.

The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.

Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.

It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.

The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).

Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.

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what’s the prefix for emesis?
what’s the suffix for emesis?

Answers

Answer:

1. unemesis

2. emesisly

“In terms of muscle actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps and hamstrings are”

Answers

Answer:

antagonist.

and the question before that is C. Sarcomeres

Explanation:

The quadriceps and the hamstrings are antagonists to each other in their actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps, and hamstrings.

What movement at the knee do the hamstring muscles perform?

The function of this hamstring is to flex your knee, extend the thigh at your hip and rotate your lower leg from side to side when your knee is bent.

What is the relationship between the quadriceps and hamstrings in the knee?

Many muscles acting on the thigh have their insertions around the knee. The quadriceps femoris muscle is the principal muscle involved in knee extension5, 6). The principal muscles involved in knee flexion are the hamstring muscle group5).

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Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?

Answers

I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others

what class of medication is used in the treatment of gastrointestinal problems?

Answers

Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are commonly used in the treatment of gastrointestinal problems. They help reduce stomach acid production.

Gastrointestinal problems encompass a range of conditions affecting the digestive system, such as acid reflux, ulcers, and gastritis. PPIs, including medications like omeprazole and pantoprazole, belong to the class of drugs used to treat these conditions. They work by inhibiting the enzyme called proton pump, which is responsible for producing stomach acid. By reducing acid production, PPIs help alleviate symptoms and promote healing in the gastrointestinal tract. These medications are often prescribed for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. PPIs are typically taken orally, and the duration of treatment may vary depending on the specific condition and individual patient needs. It's important to follow the prescribed dosage and consult a healthcare professional for proper guidance and monitoring during treatment with Proton pump inhibitors.

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What is inflammation of a vein that is due to a blood clot

Answers

Thrombophlebitis is basically the  inflammation of a vein that is due to a blood clot.

Thrombophlebitis is basically an inflammation or a swelling which eventually causes a blood clot to form as well as block one or more veins, most commonly in the legs. The affected vein can possibly be present near the surface of the skin and this is known as the superficial thrombophlebitis or it can be deep within a muscle which is known as deep vein thrombosis.

The cause of thrombophlebitis can be blood clot which can form as a result of an injury to the vein, an inherited disorder of blood clotting or immobility. When a vein happens to be close to the surface of the skin which is affected, then we might observe a red, hard cord just under the surface of the skin which is tender to the touch.

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A client is scheduled to have surgery to address a cleft palate. What type of surgery would the nurse be preparing this client for?
A) corrective
B) prophylactic
C) diagnostic
D) reconstructive

Answers

If a client is scheduled to have surgery to address a cleft palate, the nurse should prepare this client for reconstructive surgery, hence option D is correct.

What is reconstructive surgery for a cleft palate?

It is the surgical procedure in which reconstruction of the cleft palate is an incompletely fused palate, which is a congenital deformity.

A condition of cleft palate is a deformation, that affects various children, this can occur to the soft and hard palate. Many patients with this condition usually have syndromes that affect the heart, limbs, and other parts of the body.

Therefore, reconstructive surgery is the correct option.

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regulated medical waste falls into which dot hazard class

Answers

Regulated medical trash is classified as PG II packaging. Rgulated Medical Waste, n.o.s. is its correct shipping name, and it belongs in Hazard Class 6, Division 6.

What is Hazardous Materials?

Hazardous substances, hazardous waste, marine pollutants, elevated temperature material, and hazardous substances (6) Materials that match the definitions in Part 173, as well as (5) Materials listed in 172.101. CONTROLLED BY THE US D.O.T.

UN3373 refers to medical waste.

The term "Biological substance, Category B" and the identification number UN3373 must be used to describe infectious substances in Category B. Medical waste that is subject to regulation must be given the identification number UN3291 and is excluded from this.

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Full question:

Regulated medical waste falls into which hazard class?

a. Hazard Class 6

b. Hazard Class 5

c. Hazard Class 1

d. None

What tiny canal connects central canals to lacunae in compact bone?

Answers

The tiny canal that connects central canals to lacunae in compact bone is called a canaliculus (plural: canaliculi).

Compact bone consists of a dense, hard outer layer that forms the shafts of long bones and the external layer of all bones. It is composed of osteons, which are cylindrical structures consisting of concentric layers of bone matrix called lamellae. Within each osteon, there is a central canal (also known as the Haversian canal) that contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues.

The canaliculi are small, hair-like channels that radiate from the central canal of each osteon. These canaliculi connect the lacunae, which are small spaces between the lamellae that house osteocytes (mature bone cells). Through the canaliculi, osteocytes can communicate with each other and exchange nutrients and waste products.

The network of canaliculi facilitates the diffusion of nutrients, gases, and waste products between the osteocytes and the central canal. This communication and exchange of substances are essential for the maintenance and repair of bone tissue.

So, canaliculi are the tiny canals that connect the central canals to the lacunae in compact bone, allowing for communication and nutrient exchange between osteocytes and the blood supply in the central canal.

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The rules and regulations for physicians and some other providers can be found in
____________________

Answers

Answer:

medical practice acts

two test to differentiate between raw cotton and absorbent cotton in a tabular form

Answers

Answer:

Cotton is a plant that grows the soft, fluffy fibers that are used to make the fabric also known as cotton. Cotton grows best in very warm climates.

Cotton is a hugely important fiber, since it's used to make all kinds of clothing, bedding, and other things we use regularly. Your t-shirt, jeans, underwear, and socks are probably all made, at least in part, from cotton, and so is your bath towel, pillow case, and the curtains on your windows. If you use cotton as a verb, it's an informal way to say "take a liking to." This meaning has a Welsh root, cytuno, "agree."

The term also may apply to the longer textile fiber staple lint as well as the shorter fuzzy fibers from some upland species. Linters are traditionally used in the manufacture of paper and as a raw material in the manufacture of cellulose. In the UK, linters are referred to as "cotton wool".

absorbent cotton

•cotton for surgical dressings, cosmetic purposes, etc., made absorbent by removing the natural wax.

To differentiate between raw and absorbent cotton, use the following tests

1. Color test

Raw cotton has an orange/brown color.

Absorbent cotton has a pure white color.

2. Ammoniacal copper oxide solution test

Raw cotton forms balloons when dissolved in ammoniacal copper oxide solution.

Absorbent cotton is completely dissolved with uniform swelling in ammoniacal copper oxide solution.

Absorbent cotton is obtained from raw cotton after processing. It is used in the manufacture of sanitary pads and surgical cotton wools. The pure white color stems from the bleaching of raw cotton. Raw cotton has a color that can be classified as green, orange, or brown. It has only 90% cotton while protoplasm, wax, fat, and moisture make up the remaining content. Absorbent cotton has a little moisture content and pure cotton as its constituents.

Another differentiating test is the ammoniacal copper oxide solution test. While raw cotton is not uniformly dissolved in the solution, absorbent cotton is completely dissolved in it.

Therefore, the color test and ammoniacal copper oxide solution test can be used to differentiate the raw and absorbent cotton.

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two test to differentiate between raw cotton and absorbent cotton in a tabular form
two test to differentiate between raw cotton and absorbent cotton in a tabular form

A box of pseudoephedrine contains 10 tablets with a strength of 120 per tablet. How many boxes may a patient purchase in a 30 day period If purchasing from a retail pharmacy ?

Answers

Answer:

3 boxes.

Explanation:

30/10= 3

Answer:

C

Explanation:

hope this helps :D

after reviewing information about the drugs used to treat herpes virus and cmv infections, a group of students demonstrate understanding about these drugs when they identify which of the following as being available only for intravenous administration?

Answers

Ganciclovir is available only for intravenous administration. After reviewing information about the drugs used to treat herpes virus and CMV infections, a group of students demonstrate understanding about these drugs when they identify Ganciclovir as being available only for intravenous administration.

Additionally, Ganciclovir is used to treat severe infections of the herpes virus and CMV. Intravenous Ganciclovir is only administered in a hospital or clinic. As a result, patients cannot use it at home. Ganciclovir is a medication that functions by preventing the herpes virus from replicating inside cells. Intravenous ganciclovir has an adverse effect on patients. It may lead to kidney damage, liver toxicity, and nerve damage. Furthermore, the effectiveness of ganciclovir in treating CMV infections may be reduced due to drug resistance. In summary, Ganciclovir is available only for intravenous administration, used to treat severe herpes virus and CMV infections, and has side effects like kidney damage, liver toxicity, and nerve damage.

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which of the following terms is now used to refer to an embalmer

Answers

Answer:

In a funeral home, the embalmer is responsible for embalming and preparing the bodies of the deceased for funeral services as well as burials or cremations.

1 in ___ kids become addicted to marijuana and this number is even higher for nicotine.

Answers

Research shows that approximately 9 percent, or about 1 in 11, of those who use marijuana will become addicted.

Which of the following represents an appropriate outcome established during the planning phase?
A. nurse will teach the pt. to recognize and respond for adverse effects from meds
B. the pt. will demonstrate self-administration of med using a pre-load syringe into the subcutaneous tissue of thigh, prior to discharge
C. the nurse will teach the pat. to accurately prepare the dose of medication
D. the p, will be able to self-manage his disease and medication s

Answers

The appropriate outcome established during the planning phase is B. The patient will demonstrate self-administration of medication using a pre-load syringe into the subcutaneous tissue of the thigh prior to discharge.

During the planning phase of the nursing process, specific and measurable outcomes should be established to guide the care and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions. Outcome statements should be realistic, achievable, and directly related to the goals of care.

Option B represents a specific and measurable outcome related to medication administration. It involves the patient demonstrating the ability to self-administer medication using a pre-loaded syringe into a specific site, the subcutaneous tissue of the thigh. This outcome focuses on the patient's ability to perform a specific skill and achieve independence in medication management, which aligns with the goal of promoting self-management and patient empowerment.

Options A, C, and D may also be important aspects of the patient's care, but they do not represent appropriate outcomes established during the planning phase. Option A describes a teaching activity for the nurse, option C focuses on the nurse teaching the patient to prepare medication accurately, and option D is a broad outcome without specific measurable criteria.

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which surgery do you think would have the most profound effect on digestion
-removal of the stomach (gastrectomy)
-removal of the pancreas (pancreatectomy)
-removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy)​

Answers

Answer:

Removal of the pancreas would have the most severe effects on absorption because most chemical digestion occurs in the small intestine. Absorption requires the action of pancreatic enzymes, making the pancreas the most important.

Hope this helps! :))

Explanation:

How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

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