If you are stranded on a island and you can only have 3 things with you, what would the 3 things be? Money is not a answer

Answer:

C= d pi  14(3.14)

Step-by-step explanation:

Cirumference = diamter x pi

14(3.14)= 43.96cm

Answer: i think u got it write its that one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B is the correct answer--each x-value corresponds to exactly one y-value.

Answer:8

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4n +2=8

3/4n=8-2

n =( 6)/(3/4)

24/3=8

"After first" will be the one comma that is lacking in this sentence. Imani and Jack, the two best runners, came in first and second, so that is the perfect phrase.

In order to create equilibrium, add a comma after a conjunction. We drove to the beach but turned around since there was no more space in the parking lot. The placement of a comma after a conjunction as opposed to before is one of the most frequent mistakes with commas: Nancy always found time despite having a busy schedule to visit the gym.

explanation :

If any of these seven coordinating conjunctions—and, but, for, or, nor, so, yet—are used to unite independent sentences, you should use commas to separate them.

Place commas after the preceding opening (a) sentences, (b) phrases, or (c) words.

"After first" will be the one comma that is lacking in this sentence. Imani and Jack, the two best runners, came in first and second, so that is the perfect phrase.

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Answer:

X = 2550

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert 12% to a decimal:

⇒ 12% = 12/100 = 0.12

   12% of X is 306

⇒ 0.12X = 306

⇒ X = 306 ÷ 0.12

⇒ X = 2550

Answer:

2550

Step-by-step explanation:

Given expression: 12% of x is 306

We can make the following points of the expression:

    1. The word "of" means multiplication (×).

    2. The percent is always divided by 100 in fraction.

    3. The word "is" means equal or equivalent.

Now, let's simplify the expression.

⇒ 12x/100 = 306

⇒ 12x = 306 × 100

⇒ 12x/12 = 306 × 100/12

⇒ x = 51 × 50 = 2550

a) A is better for the better experiment. A creates similar with respect to forest exposure. This are because of the orthogonal effect in quadratic main model.

b) Randomization of variety of trees to plot within each block reduces any bias due to comforting variable.

Blocking Scheme:

In this subsection, the goal is to construct a blocking design such that the blocking effects are orthogonal to the terms in the linear main effects model so that a linear plus quadratic main effects model can be estimated. Assume that all m-factors are quantitative and an m0-factor DSD is constructed. where m0 = m + k and n = 2(m + k) + 1 runs.  Removing the intermediate run from  results in a 2(m + k) run design.

Randomization:

When you randomize an experiment, you select subjects at random. For example, you can use simple random sampling. In this case, participant names are randomly drawn from a pool with each having an equal probability of being selected. You can also randomly assign treatments to participants by assigning random numbers from a random number table.

If you use randomization in your experiments, protect yourself from bias. For example, selection bias (where some groups are underrepresented) is eliminated and accidental bias (where random imbalance occurs) is minimized. If your sample is random, you can also run various statistical tests on the data (to test hypotheses).

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3 1/2 cups can be expressed as the multiplication expression: 3 + 1/2.

To express 3 1/2 cups as a multiplication expression using the unit "1 cup" as a factor, you can write it as:

3 1/2 cups = (3 + 1/2) cups = 3 cups + 1/2 cup

Since there are 1 cup in each term, we can rewrite it as:

3 cups + (1/2) cup

Now, we can express each term as a multiplication expression:

3 cups = 3 * 1 cup = 3

(1/2) cup = (1/2) * 1 cup = 1/2

Putting it all together, the multiplication expression is:

3 * 1 cup + (1/2) * 1 cup = 3 + 1/2

Therefore, 3 1/2 cups can be expressed as the multiplication expression: 3 + 1/2.

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Using a standard normal distribution table, we find that the probability is approximately 0.0134 (rounded to four decimal places).

Probability is a measure of the likelihood or chance that a particular event or outcome will occur. It is expressed as a value between 0 and 1, where 0 represents an event that is impossible to occur, and 1 represents an event that is certain to occur.

To solve this problem, we can use the formula for the standard deviation of the sample mean:

Standard deviation of sample mean = standard deviation / √(sample size)

Plugging in the given values:

Standard deviation of sample mean = 7 / √(31)

Next, we can calculate the z-score, which is the number of standard deviations the sample mean is below the population mean:

z-score = (sample mean - population mean) / standard deviation of sample mean

Plugging in the given values:

z-score = (141.5 - 145) / (7 / √(31))

Using a calculator, we find that the z-score is approximately -2.22.

Finally, we can use a standard normal distribution table or a calculator to find the probability that a z-score is less than -2.22.

Using a standard normal distribution table, we find that the probability is approximately 0.0134 (rounded to four decimal places).

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Answer:

well I know one you can try SOLVEITNOW

you can also try MICROSOFT MATH SOLVER

or CYMATH-MATH PROBLEMS SOLVER

The Future value of an annuity due of $200 each quarter for 2 1 2 years at 13%, compounded quarterly is $10263.734 ..

The future value of an annuity is the value of a group of regular payments at some point in the future. It assumes a particular rate of return, or discount rate. The higher the discount rate, the greater the annuity's future value.

P = PMT× ((1+r)ⁿ −1)/r

where:

P---> Future value of an annuity stream

PMT---->Dollar amount of each annuity payment

r -->Interest rate (also known as discount rate)

n--->Number of periods in which payments will be

We have given that

Present value for an Annuity = $200

compounded rate , r = 13%

but compounded quarterly, then, r = 13%/4

= 0.13/4 = 0.325

Number of years , n = 2 + 1/2 = 5/2

then change into quarterly, n = 5/2 × 4 = 10

Future value formula ,

F.V = PMT ( (1+i)ⁿ - 1)/r

=> Future value = 200((1+0.325)^10/0.325)

=> F.V = 10263.734

Hence, the future value of an annuity is $10263.734..

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Answer:

bonjour,est-ce que vous pourriez m'aider avec ces deux exercices s'il vous plaît . Pergunta de ideia deLafille10200 - Espagnol

The probability value for the normal distribution is between 0 and 1 that is 0<Pr<0.3413

First, we need to get the z-value for both x-values

The formula for calculating the z-score is expressed as:

\(z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\)

If x = 36.3

\(z=\frac{36.3-36.3}{0.5}\\z=\frac{0}{0.5}\\z=0\)

Similarly, if x = 36.8

\(z=\frac{36.8-36.3}{0.5}\\z=\frac{0.5}{0.5}\\z=1.0\)

This shows that the z-value for the normal distribution is between 0 and 1 that is 0<z<1

The probability value for the normal distribution is between 0 and 1 that is 0<Pr<0.3413

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The result of the number 1 trillion to the 10th power as required to be determined is; 10¹²⁰.

The result of the number 1 trillion to the 10th power is as follows;

Recall; 1 trillion = 1,000,000,000,000 = 10¹²

Hence; 1 trillion to the 10th power is; ( 10¹² )¹⁰.

From the laws of indices; we therefore have that;

= 10¹²⁰

Ultimately, the result is; 10¹²⁰.

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Answer:

Part A:

1. Computation of Basic EPS

Basic EPS = (Net Income - Preferred Dividends) / Weighted Average Shares Outstanding²

Net Income = $120,000

Preferred Dividends = 4% x $50,000 = $2,000

Weighted Average Shares Outstanding = 100,000 (assuming no change in common stock during the year)

Basic EPS = ($120,000 - $2,000) / 100,000

Basic EPS = $1.18

2. Individual dilution/anti-dilution with decision making

We need to check if any of the convertible securities or stock options are dilutive or anti-dilutive by comparing their impact on EPS with the basic EPS.

Convertible Preferred: Each preferred share can be converted into 1.9 common shares (1,900 / 1,000). The conversion would increase the common shares outstanding by 1,900 and decrease the preferred dividends by $2,000.

EPS after conversion = ($120,000 - $0) / (100,000 + 1,900)

EPS after conversion = $1.16

Since this is lower than the basic EPS of $1.18, the convertible preferred is dilutive and should be included in the diluted EPS calculation.

Stock Options - A: Each option can be exercised at $12 to buy one common share when the average market price is $11. This means that the options are out of the money and would not be exercised by the holders. Therefore, they have no impact on EPS and are anti-dilutive.

Stock Options - B: Each option can be exercised at $7 to buy one common share when the average market price is $8. This means that the options are in the money and would be exercised by the holders. The exercise would increase the common shares outstanding by 4,000 and generate cash proceeds of $28,000 ($7 x 4,000). The cash proceeds can be used to buy back some common shares at the market price of $8. The number of shares bought back is 3,500 ($28,000 / $8). The net increase in common shares outstanding is 500 (4,000 - 3,500).

EPS after exercise = ($120,000 - $2,000) / (100,000 + 500)

EPS after exercise = $1.17

Since this is lower than the basic EPS of $1.18, the stock options - B are dilutive and should be included in the diluted EPS calculation.

Convertible Bonds: Each bond can be converted into 40 common shares (40,000 / 1,000). The conversion would increase the common shares outstanding by 40,000 and decrease the interest expense by $50,000 ($1,000,000 x 5%). The interest expense is net of tax, so we need to multiply it by (1 - tax rate) to get the after-tax amount. The tax rate is 30%.

EPS after conversion = ($120,000 - $2,000 + $50,000 x (1 - 0.3)) / (100,000 + 40,000)

EPS after conversion = $1.19

Since this is higher than the basic EPS of $1.18, the convertible bonds are anti-dilutive and should be excluded from the diluted EPS calculation.

3. Ranking of potential dilutors

We need to rank the potential dilutors from the most dilutive to the least dilutive based on their impact on EPS.

The most dilutive security is the convertible preferred with an EPS of $1.16.

The second most dilutive security is the stock options - B with an EPS of $1.17.

The least dilutive security is the convertible bonds with an EPS of $1.19.

4. Step-by-step inclusion of individual dilutors to arrive at reportable EPS with decision making.

We need to include the potential dilutors in order of their dilution until we reach a point where the next security would be anti-dilutive.

The first security to include is the convertible preferred.

EPS with convertible preferred = ($120,000 - $0) / (100,000 + 1,900)

EPS with convertible preferred = $1.16

The next security to include is the stock options - B.

EPS with stock options - B = ($120,000 - $0) / (100,000 + 1,900 + 500)

EPS with stock options

In a direct variation, y=9 when x=3. A direct variation equation that shows the relationship between x and y is y=3x

What do you mean by direct variation?

Direct variation is a type of proportionality when one quantity changes right away in reaction to a change in another variable. This implies that if one number rises, the other will follow suit in a comparable manner. Similar to the last illustration, if one quantity decreases, the other quantity also decreases. Direct variation will have a linear relationship with the graph, resulting in a straight line.

Given,

In a direct variation, y=9 when x=3.

Formulate an equation based on the conditions stated: y=kx

We put the value of the y and x in this equation

9=k*3

Subtract the coefficient of the variable from both sides of the equation

k= 3

We can write the equation of the function by putting the value of k:  y=3x

Hence the correct answer is y=3x

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Step-by-step explanation:

tan 30°= root 3/ 3

r²=x² + y²

r²= 4root3 ² + 12²

r²= 48 +144

r²= 192

ŕ= 8root3

so the bottom is 12...

the other side is 4root3

\(4 \sqrt{3} \)

and hypotenuse is 8root3

\(8 \sqrt{3} \)

Answer:

120

Step-by-step explanation:

3 x Z =

3 x 40=

120

HOPE THIS HELPS!!!

Answer:

13= -13

14= 57

15= 216

Step-by-step explanation:

hoep this helps

Answer:

C. 1/1,000

Step-by-step explanation:

yes or no ?

Answer:

6/3=22/x would be 11

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this is helpful

Answer:

Answer is 11

Step-by-step explanation:

3x22=66

6×X=6X

66/6X=11

Answer:

i think 6 years because i always used it

Step-by-step explanation:

make me my brainliest answer

Answer:

there are 60 rings sold

Step-by-step explanation:

becuse 1x60 is 60

The amount invested is $2500.

Simple interest is the amount that a customer earns for making an investment. It is usually a linear function of the amount invested, the interest rate and the duration of the investment.

Simple interest = amount invested x time x interest rate

Amount invested = simple interest / (time x interest rate)

=$100 / (0.02 x 2)

= $2,500

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Answer:

1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

i used calculator

Answer:  1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

To find out how many milligrams more need to be added to bring the total weight of the supplies to 10,000 mg, we can subtract the current weight from 10,000:

10,000 - 3.69 g = 10,000 - 3,690 mg

Answer:

6,310 mg more need to be added to bring the total weight of the supplies to 10,000 mg.

The quantity of candy that Eric ate would be = 14/15

The quantity of Candy Kim had = 2⅓ pounds.

The quantity of Kims candy that Eric ate = 2/5

That is 2/5 of 2⅓.

The actual quantity of candy that Eric ate = 2/5× 7/3 = 14/15

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Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

z−2(x+5)=

Use the distributive property to multiply −2 by x+5.

z−2x−10