Indique cuáles afirmaciones son verdaderas (V) y cuáles falsas (
+5 está a la derecha de +3.
-3 está a la izquierda de +3.
-5 está a la a la derecha de -4.​

The independent variable that has no effect on the dependent variable, the effect size statistic will  have a value of 0.00.

The independent variable is known to be one type of an experimenter controls.

Note that the dependent variable is seen as the variable that alters the response done to the independent variable.

The two variables may be linked by  the term cause and effect and when the independent variable is altered, so the dependent variable is affected.

Hence, The independent variable that has no effect on the dependent variable, the effect size statistic will  have a value of 0.00.

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Answer:

the process is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

hope u like it

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Explanation:

Add the minutes for now

55 minutes + 10 minutes = 65 minutes = 60 minutes + 5 minutes = 1 hour, 5 minutes

The minute portions add to 1 hour, 5 minutes. The hour portions add to 3+1 = 4.

Add on the "1 hour, 5 minute" portion and we get 5 hours, 5 minutes

This is the total duration of the round trip hike. Keep in mind that this does not include any time spent with Jennifer resting at the top of the mountain. This time duration assumes that once she gets to the top, she pretty much starts the hike back down the mountain.

----------------------------

Now convert 3:45 PM to military time. We add 12 hours to get 15:45

Subtract off 5 minutes to get 15:40

Then subtract off 5 hours to get 10:40, which converts back to 12-hour time notation to be 10:40 AM

Answer:

The distance from Durham to Fuquay-Varina is 30 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the cities of Raleigh, Durham, and Fuquay-Varina approximate a right triangle, and the distance from Raleigh to Durham is 24 miles, while the distance from Raleigh to Fuquay-Varina is 18 miles, to determine what is the distance from Durham to Fuquay-Varina, the following calculation must be performed, applying the Pythagorean theorem:

18 ^ 2 + 24 ^ 2 = X ^ 2

324 + 576 = X ^ 2

√ 900 = X

30 = X

Therefore, the distance from Durham to Fuquay-Varina is 30 miles.

The sum of first five or twelve term in the A.P given the value 60.

The term AP refers a sequence of numbers in order, in which the difference between any two consecutive numbers is a constant value.

Here we have given that  A. P. 16,14,12,.

And we need to find the number of term to get the value of 60.

While we looking into the given question we have identified that the  common difference d of the A.P. is − 2

Here we also know that the terms of the A.P. are in descending order.

Now, we have to take n = 5  then then first 5 terms are 16,14,12,10,8.

Here we have identified that the sum is 60.

Similarly, here by taking n = 12 , then the last 7 terms ( 12 − 5 ) (12-5) are 6 , 4 , 2 , 0 , − 2 , − 4 , − 5 6,4,2,0,-2,-4,-5

Here we have identified that the sum of these seven terms is 0.

Therefore, sum of first 12 terms is also 60.

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The optimal solution for this LP model is x = 2 and y = 2, with a maximum objective function value of 10

To graph the constraints, we can rewrite each inequality in slope-intercept form:

2x + 2y < 8

y < -x + 4

3x + 2y < 12

y < -1.5x + 6

x + 0.5y < 3

y < -2x + 6

Now we can plot these three lines on a coordinate plane and shade the regions that satisfy each inequality. The feasible region is the region that satisfies all three inequalities.

To find the optimal solution, we need to evaluate the objective function at each corner point of the feasible region and choose the point that maximizes the objective function.

The corner points of the feasible region are (0,0), (0,3), (1.5,3), and (2,2).

Objective function at (0,0): 3(0) + 2(0) = 0

Objective function at (0,3): 3(0) + 2(3) = 6

Objective function at (1.5,3): 3(1.5) + 2(3) = 9

Objective function at (2,2): 3(2) + 2(2) = 10

Therefore, the optimal solution is at (2,2), which gives a maximum value of 3(2) + 2(2) = 10.

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Answer:

Summary. If the equation ends with a false statement (ex: 0=3) then you know that there's no solution. If the equation ends with a true statement (ex: 2=2) then you know that there's infinitely many solutions or all real numbers.

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine whether an equation has one solution, no solutions, or infinitely many solutions, we need to examine the relationship between the variables and the consistency of the equation.

Here are the general guidelines:

1. One Solution: An equation has one solution if the variables can be assigned specific values that satisfy the equation, resulting in a unique solution. When solving the equation, you will find a specific value or set of values for the variables that make the equation true. The solution is often a numerical value or a specific point in a coordinate system.

2. No Solutions: An equation has no solutions if there is no value or combination of values for the variables that satisfy the equation. When solving the equation, you will arrive at a contradiction or an inconsistency. For example, if you encounter a statement like 2 = 5 during the solution process, it indicates that the equation has no solutions.

3. Infinitely Many Solutions: An equation has infinitely many solutions if any value assigned to the variables will satisfy the equation. This typically occurs when the equation is an identity or when there are variables on both sides of the equation that cancel out during the solution process, resulting in the equation always being true. In such cases, any value can be substituted for the variables, and the equation will remain true.

Determining the nature of the solutions often involves algebraic manipulation, simplification, and analysis of the equation to determine if it is consistent, inconsistent, or an identity.

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Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

y = x has the inverse x = y

Answer: 19.6 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the Pythagorean theorem,

\(x^2 +(x+6)^2 =48^2\\\\x^2 +x^2 +12x+36=2304\\\\2x^2 +12x-2268=0\\\\x^2 +6x-1134=0\\\\x=\frac{-6 \pm \sqrt{6^2 -4(1)(-1134)}}{2(1)}\\\\x \approx 30.8 \text{ } (x > 0)\\\\\implies x+(x+6) \approx 67.6\\\\\therefore (x+(x+6))-48 \approx 19.6\)

Answer:

200,000 times

Step-by-step explanation:

80 km × (1000 m)/(1 km) × (100 cm)/(1 m) = 8,000,000 cm

8,000,000 cm / 40 cm = 200,000

Answer: 200,000 times

The solution would be x<-8

The equation of the tangent line to the curve x² + 4x cos(5y) = 25 at the point (5, 6) is y - 6 = ((5 + √3)/25)(x - 5).

To find the equation of the line tangent to the curve at a given point, we need to determine the slope of the tangent line at that point.

Given the curve equation x² + 4x cos(5y) = 25, we first need to find the derivative of both sides with respect to x. Differentiating the equation implicitly, we get:

2x + 4cos(5y) - 20xy' sin(5y) = 0

Now we substitute the coordinates of the point (5, 6) into the equation to find the slope of the tangent line at that point. We have x = 5 and y = 6:

2(5) + 4cos(5(6)) - 20(5)y' sin(5(6)) = 0

Simplifying the equation, we have:

10 + 4cos(30) - 100y' sin(30) = 0

Using the trigonometric identity cos(30) = √3/2 and sin(30) = 1/2, the equation becomes:

10 + 4(√3/2) - 100y' (1/2) = 0

Simplifying further:

10 + 2√3 - 50y' = 0

Now we can solve for y' to find the slope of the tangent line:

50y' = 10 + 2√3

y' = (10 + 2√3)/50

y' = (5 + √3)/25

Therefore, the slope of the tangent line at the point (5, 6) is (5 + √3)/25.

To find the equation of the tangent line, we can use the point-slope form:

y - y₁ = m(x - x₁)

Substituting the coordinates (5, 6) and the slope (5 + √3)/25, we have:

y - 6 = ((5 + √3)/25)(x - 5)

This is the equation of the line tangent to the curve at the point (5, 6).

The complete question is:

"In an animation, an object moves along the curve x² + 4x cos(5y) = 25. Find the equation of the line tangent to the curve at (5, 6)."

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Answer:

q=x/y (q-p)3

Step-by-step explanation:

p+3q over q equals to x over y.

move q to the left. p+3q=x over y then ( q.

move p to the left. 3q=x over y then (q-p)

move 3 to the left. q=x over y then ( q-p) 3

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

From the figure given, TV and RS are parallel.

Therefore, angle VTS and angle RST equal (Alternate angles)

Thus, angle VTS = angle RST = x

Angle T + angle S + angle R = 180° (sum of angles in a triangle)

2x + x + x = 180

4x = 180

Divide both sides by 4 to solve for x

x = 180/4

x = 45

The value of x in each case is 45

If we input 45 as a value of x in the angles in the triangle, the sum of what we have will give us 180°.

Answer:45

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-5.44

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply add negative sign

To calculate the energy of the resulting explosion when a 10,000 kg UFO made of antimatter crashes with a 40,000 kg plane made of matter, we can use Einstein's famous equation, E=mc², which relates energy (E) to mass (m) and the speed of light (c).

In this case, we'll need to calculate the total mass of matter and antimatter involved in the collision and then use the equation to find the energy released. The equation E=mc² states that energy is equal to the mass multiplied by the square of the speed of light (c). In this scenario, we have a collision between a UFO made of antimatter and a plane made of matter. Antimatter and matter annihilate each other when they come into contact, resulting in a release of energy.

To calculate the energy of the resulting explosion, we need to determine the total mass involved in the collision. The total mass can be calculated by adding the masses of the UFO and the plane together. In this case, the UFO has a mass of 10,000 kg and the plane has a mass of 40,000 kg, so the total mass is 50,000 kg.

Next, we can use the equation E=mc² to calculate the energy. The speed of light (c) is a constant value, approximately 3 x 10^8 meters per second. Plugging in the values, we have E = (50,000 kg) x (3 x 10^8 m/s)². Simplifying the equation, we have E = 50,000 kg x 9 x 10^16 m²/s².Multiplying the numbers, we get E = 4.5 x 10^21 joules. Therefore, the energy of the resulting explosion when the UFO and plane collide is approximately 4.5 x 10^21 joules.

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Answer: i think its D because X < -2 hopefully i helped

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$330.03

Step-by-step explanation:

You start by adding all of the pairs of pants: 57. Then, you multiply 57 by $5.79: 330.03

Answer:

no because it does not have a pattern

Answer:

16, 8, 4, 1 it is not an arithmetic sequence

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-5.66 + 4.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Whenever you subtract a negative number, it will change it to adding a positive number.

-5.66 - (-4.1) -> -5.66 + 4.1

Best of Luck!

Answer: -5.66 + 4.1

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected net gain from playing this game is -0.35 dollars. To calculate the expected net gain, we need to multiply each possible outcome by its corresponding probability and sum them up.

Let's denote the winnings as X, where X = 1 represents winning 1 dollar, X = 2 represents winning 2 dollars, and X = 20 represents winning 20 dollars.

Expected net gain = (1 dollar * probability of winning 1 dollar) + (2 dollars * probability of winning 2 dollars) + (20 dollars * probability of winning 20 dollars) - (2 dollars, the cost to play the game)

Expected net gain = (1 * 0.15) + (2 * 0.05) + (20 * 0.01) - 2 = -0.35 dollars.

In this game, there are three possible outcomes with their respective probabilities: winning 1 dollar with probability 0.15, winning 2 dollars with probability 0.05, and winning 20 dollars with probability 0.01. These probabilities indicate the likelihood of winning each corresponding amount.

To calculate the expected net gain, we need to consider the potential winnings and the cost to play the game. The cost to play the game is a fixed amount of 2 dollars.

We calculate the expected net gain by multiplying each possible outcome by its probability and summing them up. For example, the expected gain from winning 1 dollar is (1 * 0.15) dollars, while the expected gain from winning 2 dollars is (2 * 0.05) dollars. Similarly, the expected gain from winning 20 dollars is (20 * 0.01) dollars.

To obtain the final expected net gain, we subtract the cost to play the game (2 dollars) from the sum of the expected gains. If the result is negative, it represents a net loss, while a positive result indicates a net gain.

In this case, the calculations are as follows:

Expected net gain = (1 * 0.15) + (2 * 0.05) + (20 * 0.01) - 2 = -0.35 dollars.

This means that, on average, a player can expect to lose approximately 35 cents per game when playing this particular gambling game.

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Answer:

-8xy+2xy=-6xy

In the given angles, the values of R=31⁰, x=34⁰, m<S= 38⁰, m<Y = 111⁰

We know that a triangle is a polygon whose sum of angles is equal to 180 degress , with three sides and three vertices.

The given angles are

31⁰,  (x+4)⁰,  (3x+9)⁰

The sum of angles of the triangle

31+x+4+3x+9=180⁰

44+4x=180⁰

Collecting like terms

4x=136

Dividing by 4

x=34⁰

Substituting the value of x=34 in the given angles we have

R= 31⁰,             given

 (x+4)⁰   = 34+4=38⁰,  (3*34+9)⁰=111⁰

In conclusion the values of R= 31⁰, x=34⁰ , m<S=38⁰, m<T=111⁰

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Answer:

63m

Step-by-step explanation:

Alex swims 45m in 1 min .

=> Alex swims 45 m in 60 secs

=> Alex swims 45/60 m in 1 sec

In 1 min & 24 secs ( or 84 secs ) , Alex can swim =

\( \frac{45}{60} \times 84 = 63 \: m\)

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m = 4/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Write equation

\(\frac{3m}{4} =\frac{4}{2}\)

Step 2: Solve for m

Answer:

2 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Since that you have to make the problem proportional, both sides of the inequality will have to be the same. 4/2 will have a total of 2, so what you need to do is multiply 3 by something in which divided by 4 will have a total of 2.

3 × 2 2/3 = 8. And 8/4 is 2, so that is proportional to 4/2.

1.35 is the point estimate for mean value of thickness of paint when the sample observation is taken into consideration.

The Mean Value Theorem is a crucial concept in calculus. The original form of the mean value theorem was developed in the 14th century by Parmeshwara, a mathematician from Kerela, India. Furthermore, Rolle provided a simpler model of this back in the 17th century: Rolle's Theorem, which was proved solely for polynomial observation and did not part of the calculus. The current iteration of the Mean Value Theorem was first presented in 1823 by Augustin Louis Cauchy.

The mean value theorem asserts that for a curve passing through two given points, there is one point on the curve where the tangent is parallel to the secant running through the two provided locations.

How to solve?

We are given the following sample for thickness for low-viscosity paint.

0.81 0.87 0.90 1.05 1.11 1.14 1.30 1.30 1.48 1.48 1.59 1.60 1.66 1.69 1.78 1.84.

a) Point estimate of the mean value of coating thickness.

We use the sample mean to estimate the mean value of the coating thickness.

mean= sum of all observations/total number of observations

mean=21.6/16

mean=1.35 which is the point estimate for mean value of thickness of paint.

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