Mineral deposition into bones begin when?

In fetal ossification
In the first month of life
During puberty
In the first year of life

Answers

Answer 1

Mineral deposition into bones begins during fetal ossification.

Fetal ossification refers to the process of bone formation in the developing fetus. It starts in the early stages of prenatal development, typically around the 8th week of gestation, and continues throughout fetal development. During this time, minerals such as calcium and phosphate are deposited in the developing bone matrix, contributing to the growth and hardening of the skeletal system. Mineral deposition continues after birth and throughout childhood and adolescence, with periods of accelerated growth during infancy, puberty, and the first few years of life. However, the initial mineral deposition into bones begins during fetal ossification.

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Related Questions

your memory of how to ride a bicycle is an example of

Answers

Answer: implicit memory.

Explanation: In a psychological perspective, effortlessly memory of knowing how to ride a bicycle is an example of use of the implicit memory in our minds.

Why do you think is gonna happen if the world lose oxygen for an hour​

Answers

Answer:

if the world loses oxygen for 1hr, firstly, your inner ear will blow out due to the pressure

we will have to use hospital oxygen

there will be a lot of fatalities

the atmosphere will go really cold

everything will end

Psychotropic medications are drugs that treat psychiatric symptoms by restoring.a. Trueb. False

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

by restoring neurotransmitter balance. true?

PLEASE HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

A ____ is a person who breaks down a large project into pieces and delegates them, making sure they are done correctly and on time.

A. Project manager

B. Boss

C. Leader

D. Peer

Answers

Answer:

A project manager is a person who breaks down a large project into pieces and delegates them, making sure they are done correctly and on time.

when do oogonia undergo mitosis? a. before birth b. at puberty c. during fertilization d. at the beginning of each menstrual cycl

Answers

Oogonia are the female germ cells that give rise to primary oocytes.Therefore, the correct answer to the question is b. at puberty.

They undergo mitosis during fetal development and are present in the ovaries of female fetuses before birth. However, after birth, the primary oocytes present in the ovaries are arrested in prophase I of meiosis and do not undergo further cell division until puberty.

At puberty, a small number of primary oocytes are activated each month to continue meiosis and undergo mitosis to produce a secondary oocyte and a polar body during ovulation. It is important to note that the process of oogenesis is complex and regulated by various hormonal and environmental factors, which can affect the timing and efficiency of mitosis in oogonia and oocyte development.

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With a patient who is administered an injection of colony stimulating factor (csf), you would expect to see ________.

Answers

In a patient who is administered an injection of the colony stimulating factor (CSF) it is expected to see an increased white blood cell count (i.e., WBCC) regarding normal values.

What is the colony stimulating factor?

The colony-stimulating factor (also abbreviated as CSF) can be denoted as specific protein factors linked to carbohydrates (glycoproteins) capable of binding with receptors present on the cell membrane of hemopoietic stem cells.

These are hemopoietic stem cells are associated with the production of white blood cells, thereby it can increase the white blood cell count too excesive abnormal values, e.g., 5,000 to 11,300 white blood cells per microliter.

In conclusion, with a patient who is administered an injection of the colony stimulating factor it is expected to see an increased white blood cell count (i.e., WBCC) regarding normal values.

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Do you think that there are ways to have a good time instead of drinking? What are
some ways to have fun?

Answers

Answer:

Ride a bicycle.

Go for a walk.

Meet a friend for lunch.

Read a book

Play a board game.

Attend an exercise class.

Organize old photos, albums or books.

Cook dinner.

Bake cookies.

Binge a few episodes of a favorite TV show.

Call a friend you haven’t spoken to in a while.

Take a nap.

Go to the movies.

Hippocrates, an ancient greek philosopher, is often referred to as the ______________ of medicine.

Answers

Hippocrates, an ancient greek philosopher, is often referred to as the Father of Medicine"

Hippocrates theory :

Hippocrates, a Greek physician (c. 460 bce–c. 370 bce), and his contemporaries promoted a medical philosophy known as "the hypothesis of the four humors." Health reigned when the patient's humors—black bile, yellow bile, phlegm, and blood—were in balance; when they were, in some way, out of balance, disease overcame the patient.

What was the first medicine?

German scientist Friedrich Sertürner created the first pharmacological medicine in 1804. In his laboratory, he isolated the primary component from opium and gave it the name "morphine," after the Greek deity of sleep.

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how many docters does it take to skrew in a light bulb

Answers

5......ggggggggggggggg

Answer:

Well...

Explanation:

Does the light bulb have health insurance????

UvU hope this helps

the latest research regarding children raised in lesbian and gay households suggests __________.

Answers

Suggests children develop similarly to children of heterosexual families and are well adapted

The most common clinical presentation of invasive pneumococcal disease among children younger than 2 years of age is:

Answers

The most common invading clinical presentation of pneumococcal infection in children aged 2 years or less is bacteremia without a recognized source of infection.

What is pneumococcal disease ?The term "pneumococcal disease" refers to any infection brought on by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as the pneumococcus. Ear infections, sinus infections, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections are all possible outcomes of pneumococcal infections. Pneumococcal illness can be prevented using vaccinations.Coughing, sneezing, and close contact all contribute to the transmission of pneumococcal illness. Even if they are not ill, some people, particularly youngsters, can transfer the bacterium to others by carrying it in their nose and throat.Fever, coughing, shortness of breath, chest pain, stiff neck, confusion, heightened sensitivity to light, joint pain, chills, ear pain, insomnia, and irritability are just a few of the symptoms that can appear. Pneumococcal disease can be fatal or severely debilitate patients in some cases.

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Which is a sign of alcohol overdose? normal speech heavy snoring mild fever slow, irregular breathin

Answers

Answer:

that is the correct

Explanation:

most of the times but they are different sign

Answer:

D.) slow, irregular breathing

Explanation:

Your healthcare facility is planning to start a Continuous Quality Improvement program.
a) What role do standards play in setting up a CQI program for a food service department?
b) How do standards help maintain quality in a food service department?
c) Discuss how standards are monitored in a CQI program.
Then, select one example of a food service standard and list 3 indicators that you can use to
measure your results in comparison to the standard.

Answers

a)Standards offer a yardstick by which the department's operations and performance may be measured. b) Standards serve as a framework for consistency and uniformity, helping to preserve quality. c) Monitoring entails audits, inspections, feedback, etc. One example is the safety food standard for food services.

Setting up a Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) program for a food service sector depends heavily on standards. Standards offer a yardstick by which the department's operations and performance may be measured. They act as standards or benchmarks that specify the desired level of performance and quality.

Standards provide a framework for consistency and uniformity in processes, which helps sustain quality in a food service department. They lay out the ideal procedures, methods, and results that go into providing high-quality culinary services.

conducting routine audits and inspections to determine whether requirements are being complied with. This could entail checking to see if procedures, records, tools, and people practices all adhere to the stated standards.

Surveys, comment cards, and other methods may be used to collect feedback from stakeholders such as clients, employees, and others. This comments can help identify areas for improvement and shed light on whether the department is meeting the criteria.

Measurement tools for results: Controlling the temperature of food during many processes such storage, preparation, cooking, and holding. Make sure that the necessary temperature ranges are met at all crucial control points. The proportion of foods that are provided and stored at

the proper temperature could serve as an indicator. Sanitation and Hygiene: Examine how the food service department maintains cleanliness and hygiene, including hand washing, sanitizing surfaces and utensils, and proper waste disposal.

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A male client is prescribed potassium-sparing diuretics to treat his disease process. During his annual visit to the health care provider, he reports experiencing muscle weakness and tingling in his fingers. What does the nurse suspect is wrong with this client?.

Answers

The nurse should suspect that the client is suffering from Hyperkalemia.

What is Hyperkalemia?

Hyperkalemia occurs when the potassium levels in your blood become excessively high. Potassium is a mineral that is found in foods. This nutrient aids the function of your nerves and muscles. However, having too much potassium in your blood can harm your heart and cause a heart attack. It's not always easy to tell when your potassium levels are high.

Causes:

1. Kidney disease

2. A diet high in potassium.

3. Some drugs can prevent your kidneys from excreting enough potassium. This can cause an increase in potassium levels.

4. Adding potassium to your diet through salt substitutes or supplements.

5. Diabetes is poorly controlled.

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Endocrine glands that occur in pairs, rather than singly, are:A) pituitary and pineal. B) thyroid and thymus. C) adrenals and gonads. D) thymus and pancreas

Answers

Endocrine glands that occur in pairs, rather than singly, are the adrenal glands and gonads. The adrenal glands are located on top of each kidney, whereas the gonads are the male and female reproductive organs.

Endocrine glands are the glands in the body that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Hormones are the chemical messengers of the body. They control many of the body's functions, including growth and development, metabolism, mood, and sexual function. Endocrine glands are classified into two types: single and paired. The single endocrine glands include the pineal gland, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, and thymus gland.

The paired endocrine glands are the adrenal glands and the gonads. The adrenal glands are two small glands located on top of each kidney. The adrenal glands produce hormones that help regulate the body's response to stress. The adrenal glands produce a number of hormones, including adrenaline, cortisol, and aldosterone.What are the gonads?The gonads are the male and female reproductive organs. In males, the gonads are the testes, which produce testosterone. In females, the gonads are the ovaries, which produce estrogen and progesterone.

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HELP ME ASAP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

How can you use child-initiated and teacher-initiated instruction in the classroom to best support learning?

Answers

Answer:

Child-initiated alongside teacher-initiated instruction in the classroom is beneficial for positive influence and helping children to explore independence. Child-initiated instruction can support learning through critical thinking skills and observing what their interests are. Teacher-initiated instruction is what helps set a positive influence on children and helps guide on what the tasks are for the day. It gives structure and schedule.

Explanation:

I haven't yet received a grade on this, but I hope it helps!

The teacher provides guidance and support for students to explore and learn independently, while also introducing new concepts and facilitating learning through direct instruction and modeling.

What is child-initiated and teacher-initiated instruction?

Child-initiated instruction refers to the approach of allowing children to take the lead in their own learning, through exploration and discovery. This can involve providing children with access to a wide range of materials and resources, and allowing them to choose what they want to learn about and how they want to learn it.

Teacher-initiated instruction, on the other hand, refers to the approach of the teacher providing more direct instruction to the students, through lectures, demonstrations, and other structured activities.

Both child-initiated and teacher-initiated instruction have their benefits and can be used to support learning in the classroom.

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When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?a. Apply the ointment on the skin on the forearm.
b. Apply the ointment only in the case of a mild angina episode.
c. Remove the old ointment before new ointment is applied.
d. Massage the ointment gently into the skin, and then cover the area with plastic wrap.

Answers

The correct technique for administering topical nitroglycerin ointment is to apply the ointment on a hairless area of skin, such as the chest or abdomen.

Topical nitroglycerin ointment is used to treat angina, a condition that occurs when the heart muscle does not receive enough blood and oxygen. The ointment works by relaxing the blood vessels, which increases blood flow to the heart and reduces the workload of the heart. To ensure the effectiveness of the ointment, it is important to apply it correctly.

The skin on the forearm is not an ideal site for application because it is usually hairy and there may be poor absorption. The ointment should also not be applied only in the case of a mild angina episode because it is used for prophylaxis and prevention of angina symptoms. It should be applied as prescribed by the physician.

In summary, the correct technique for administering topical nitroglycerin ointment is to apply it on a hairless area of skin, such as the chest or abdomen, as prescribed by the physician. The old ointment should be removed before new ointment is applied. It is important to follow the instructions of the physician and pharmacist to ensure the effectiveness of the medication.

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5. If the current COVID-19 vaccines become less effective in decreasing infections and hospitalizations for a new SARS-COV2 variant, what can be inferred? a. There was a lack of quality control in the vaccine manufacture. b. Bad batches of each vaccine were used. c. The vaccines were not administered correctly. d. The new variant does not have the same antigen epitope to which the original vaccines were generated. Match the following choices to the descriptions below: a. aerobe b. obligate anaerobe c. microaerophile d. facultative anaerobe e. aerotolerant 6. Can't tolerate air-oxygen is toxic for it. 7. It requires oxygen in the levels present in air. 8. It can survive without oxygen, but if oxygen is available - it grows (reproduces) more rapidly. 9. It can grow in the presence of air, but it does not use oxygen. 10. Vaccines can be developed to prevent a viral infections, but not bacterial infections. b. bacterial infections, but not viral infections. c. both viral and bacterial infections. d. neither viral nor bacterial infections. a. viral infections, but not bacterial infections b. bacterial infections, but not viral infections c. both viral and bacterial infections d. neither viral nor bacterial infections 12. Which of the following is most likely to cause severe developmental defects to the unborn fetus if a pregnant woman becomes infected?. a. ringworm b. whooping cough (pertussis) c. tuberculosis d. giardia e. measles Match one of the following choices of pathogens (a-e) to the following disorders. NOTE: some choices may be used more than once, some may not be used at all! a. viral only b. bacterial only c. bacterial or viral d. fungal only e. bacterial, viral, or fungal 19. Syphilis 13. Pneumonia 20. Sinusitis 14. candidiasis 21. Genital warts 15. Cholera 22. Ringworm 16. Herpes. 23. Gonorrhea 17. Influenza 24. Chicken pox 18. Pharyngitis 11. Antibiotics can be used to treat.

Answers

If the current COVID-19 vaccines become less effective in decreasing infections and hospitalizations for a new SARS-COV2 variant, it can be inferred that d.

The new variant does not have the same antigen epitope to which the original vaccines were generated. This is because vaccines are designed to work with specific viral antigens, and if the virus mutates enough that the antigenic region changes significantly, the original vaccine may not be effective against that new variant.

Vaccines can be developed to prevent viral infections, but not bacterial infections.Measles is most likely to cause severe developmental defects to the unborn fetus if a pregnant woman becomes infected.bacterial or viral – Syphilisbacterial or viral – Pneumoni bacterial or viral – Sinusitis.

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Which of these is an advantage of an MRI over a CT scan?

Answers

Answer:

An advantage of an MRI scan over a CT scan is radiation is used in a CT scan, whereas there is not any radiation used in an MRI scan.

What is the cost for you (student) to get access to the sun devil fitness center at tempe campus?

Answers

Sun devil fitness center access is free of cost for students of arizona state university (ASU). ASU students can use fitness facilities in all campuses .

so there is not cost to pay as a student of ASU to access sun devil fitness center at temporary campus. but it must needed that you must be the student of ASU . the entry fees and all for  a ASU student is included in their registration fee.

If you as approach their as a guest then you have to pay 10 dollar for single day or 40 dollar for a week per person. and it is totally depends on you that  for which consecutive seven days you want the pass of a week. if you are under 18 then must take your parent signature for recognition.

Arizona state university :

ASU is one of the largest public universities in the united states. founded in 1885 .it is a public research university located in phoenix  metropolitan area .the enrollment is among the highest in the country with around 150000 students .

Hence if you are a outside student then you have to pay but if you are a student of ASU then it is accessible for you .

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In which stage of the stress response do our bodies release the hormone adrenaline?
A.
alarm
B.
resistance
C.
fatigue

Answers

Answer:

When the threat or stressor is identified or realized, the body's stress response is in a state of alarm. During this stage, adrenaline will be produced in order to bring about the fight-or-flight response.

Answer:

A: alarm

Explanation:

All of the following are internal factors that may negatively affect an individual with dementia EXCEPT:
Frustation
Fear and confusion
False beliefs
Fatigue

Answers

Fatigue is not going to negatively affect the patient with dementia, among the given factors, like frustration, fear and confusion, and false beliefs.

What is Dementia?

It is an umbrella term that encompasses a wide range of specific medical conditions, including Alzheimer's disease. Disorders classified as "dementia" are caused by abnormal brain changes. These changes cause a decline in thinking skills, also known as cognitive abilities, which is severe enough to interfere with daily life and independent function. Alzheimer's disease is responsible for 60-80% of cases.

What is Frustration?

In addition to anger, annoyance, and disappointment, frustration is a typical emotional reaction to the opposition. A person's perceived opposition to the accomplishment of their desire or objective gives rise to frustration, which is likely to worsen when a will or aim is rejected or prevented.

Hence, it can be concluded that fatigue is not going to negatively affect the patient with dementia, among the given factors.

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discuss 3 practical ways in which grade 11s who may pass their national senior certificate with either a diploma or degree endorsement vould secure financial support for their chosen courses

Answers

Scholarships, bursaries, and student loans are three useful options available to grade 11 students who are eligible to pass their national senior certificate with a diploma or degree endorsement in order to pay for their selected courses.

What is financial support?Any form of financial aid or support given to a person or group of people is referred to as financial support. This includes loans, grants, bursaries, scholarships, and other types of financial aid intended to support people or organizations in reaching their objectives. Governmental entities, nonprofit groups, and ordinary citizens can all offer financial support. As a result, Grade 11 students who are eligible to complete their National Senior Certificate with a diploma or degree endorsement can find financial assistance for their desired courses through scholarships, bursaries, and student loans.

Therefore,

Here, it is clear that there are three realistic options for Grade 11 students who receive a diploma or degree endorsement upon passing their National Senior Certificate to pay for their desired courses:

Scholarships: Several academic institutions and private groups award financial aid to individuals who can prove their academic ability or need.Bursaries: Bursaries are financial incentives given to students based on their academic achievement or financial necessity.Student Loans: Student loans are available from a variety of financial institutions and are intended to assist students in covering the cost of their education.

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Which step comes first in giving CPR?
Clear the airway.
O Administer chest compressions.
O Call 911.
Perform rescue breaths.

Answers

Answer:

call 911

Explanation:

You need to call 911 so that way they can start getting to you and they may need to give your more information on what to do.

Admister chest compression

why should a women stop smoking before pregnancy

please help its for my health and social care test

Answers

Answer:

Coz if u r pregnant and u smoke its gonna harm the baby and its very dangerous for both mother and baby

Explanation:

Please mark as brainliest

Answer:

Stopping smoking will help both you and your baby immediately. Harmful gases, such as carbon monoxide, and other damaging chemicals will clear from your body. When you stop smoking:

you will reduce the risk of complications in pregnancy and birth

you are more likely to have a healthier pregnancy and a healthier baby

you will reduce the risk of stillbirth

your baby is less likely to be born too early and have to face the breathing, feeding and health problems that often go with being premature

your baby is less likely to be born with a low birth weight. Babies of smokers are, on average, 200g (about 8oz) lighter than other babies, which can cause problems during and after labour. For example, they are more likely to have problems keeping warm and are more likely to get infections

you will reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), also known as "cot death".

Stopping smoking now will also help your baby later in life. Children whose parents smoke are more likely to suffer from asthma and other serious illnesses that may need hospital treatment.

The sooner you stop smoking, the better. But even if you stop in the last few weeks of your pregnancy this will benefit you and your baby.

Secondhand (passive) smoke harms your baby

If your partner or anyone else who lives with you smokes, their smoke can affect you and your baby before and after their birth. You may also find it more difficult to stop if someone around you smokes.

Secondhand smoke can also reduce your baby's birthweight and increase the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), also known as "cot death". Babies whose parents smoke are more likely to be admitted to hospital for bronchitis and pneumonia during their first year.

To find out more about quitting and to get support, your partner can call the NHS Smokefree helpline on 0300 123 1044 from 9am to 8pm Monday to Friday, and 11am to 4pm Saturday and Sunday.

Nicotine replacement therapy

You can use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) during pregnancy if it will help you stop smoking and you're unable to stop without it. It's not recommended that you take stop smoking tablets such as Champix or Zyban during pregnancy.

NRT contains only nicotine and none of the damaging chemicals found in cigarettes, so it is a much better option than continuing to smoke. It helps you by giving you the nicotine you would have had from a cigarette.

You can be prescribed NRT during pregnancy by a GP or an NHS stop smoking adviser. You can also buy it over the counter without a prescription from a pharmacy.

Explanation:

please mark me as brainliest

How has chicken production changed over the
past 50 years?

Answers

Answer:

Chicken production has changed in the past 50 years because of new hormones and steroids placed in chickens to increase the growth of the chickens. Population increase has also created a need for more chicken so production companies have looked for new ways to make more chicken faster like cloning.

Explanation:

which nutrient deficiency should a nurse recognize as placing a client at risk for osteoporosis?

Answers

A nurse should recognize that a deficiency in calcium and vitamin D places a client at risk for osteoporosis.

Calcium is a mineral that is essential for building and maintaining strong bones, and a deficiency can lead to weakened bones and an increased risk of fractures. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium from the foods we eat and helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. Without enough vitamin D, the body may not be able to absorb enough calcium, leading to weak bones.

Other nutrients that may be important for bone health include vitamin K, magnesium, and phosphorus, but calcium and vitamin D are particularly important for preventing osteoporosis.

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identify four words related to Health

Answers

Explanation:

FitnessHeartinessWellnessSap

Viruses are resistant to which of the following:
Freezing
Disinfectants
all of these are correct
Heat

Answers

all of the above

Freezing
Disinfectants
Heat

From an evolutionary perspective, the ability to learn is considered to be:
a. a random ability.
b. a non-genetic trait.
c. dangerous.
d. an adaptive response.

Answers

From an evolutionary perspective, the ability to learn is considered to be an adaptive response. Therefore, the correct option is option D. Evolutionary perspective is an approach that explains why creatures are the way they are and why they have specific behaviors and mental capacities.

This approach examines creatures in the context of their ancestral heritage, identifying adaptive advantages and limitations imposed by the environment in which their ancestors evolved. Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience. The capacity to learn is the ability to acquire knowledge and skills through experience, instruction, or study. From an evolutionary perspective, the capacity to learn and adapt to new information is an essential skill for survival and reproduction. Therefore, the ability to learn is considered to be an adaptive response to the changing environment.

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what steps are needed to prepaare phenylacetylene, c6h5cch, from c6h5ch2ch2br. be sure to answer all parts. what does the symbol of comets represent in this excerpt? war glory evil faith A _____ is an organization of employees formed to represent workers in their disputes with management over wages, hours, and working conditions. Which of the following phenomena usually only has an effect on very small populations?MutationsMutationsRecombinationRecombinationGene flowGene flowGenetic drift 154.42g of oxygen gas (O2) react with an excess of ethane (C2H6) produces how many moles of water vapor (H2O)? continued. what is the probability that at most 7 customers will arrive at the shop during a 5-minute interval? A key planning principle is that plans are most coherent when developed by a single emergency management professional and then presented to the response community for approval. A. TRUEB. FALSE 1. Compare and contrast thermal energy and temperature. On average, how many stars would we have to search before we would expect to hear a signal? assume there are 500 billion stars in the galaxy. a jogger begins her workout by jogging to a park, a distance of 12 miles. she then jogs home at the same speed, but along a different route. this return trip is 18 miles, and her time is one hour longer. find her jogging speed. 5.Put the adverbs in the correct place: Do you go to the zoo with your parents? (often)a.Do often go to the zoo with your parents?b.Do you often go to the zoo with your parents?c.Do you go to the zoo with your parents?d.Do you go often to the zoo with your parents? 3. Andrew deposited $2500 in an account that pays interest at a rate of 4%/ a for 5 years. a. If the account pays simple interest, how much interest would he earn? b. If the interest is compounded quarterly, how much interest would he earn? identify the least common multiple of: (x + 1), (x - 1), & (x2 - 1) high doses of nutrient supplements have been found to _____ cancers. A stone weighing 1.5 kilograms is resting on a rock at a height of 20 meters above the ground. The stone rolls down 10 meters and comes to rest on a patch of moss. The gravitational potential energy of the stone on the moss is joules. (Use PE = m g h, where g = 9.8 N/kg.) the nurse administers an older adult clients medications via gastrosotmy tube in the long term care setting. which finding would necessitate holding the feedings and medications Civil Rights Activist began be portrayed in the media as ___________. sabrina, vice president of development for a large automobile manufacturer, has developed a radically different marketing strategy. before she presents the idea to the ceo, she first consults with the other vice presidents to get their input and support. this step in building support for an idea is known as'' The financial services department of your company offers a competitive leadership program. After screening and interviewing all applicants, the selection committee has chosen to extend an invitation to Kallee Davalos and Matt Rightson. You have been asked to invite Kailee and Matt to participate in the leadership program. Should the tone for this message be formal or informal? Formal Informal Which communication channel would be most appropriate? Phone call Face-to-face meeting Formal report Instant message Schlitterbahn Waterslide Company issued 30,000, 10-year, 8 percent, $100 bonds on January 1 at face value. Interest is payable each December 31 Record the issuance of 30,000 bonds at face value for $100 each. Note: Enter debits before credits. Date General Journal Debit Credit January 01 Schlitterbahn Waterslide Company issued 30,000, 10-year, 8 percent, $100 bonds on January 1 at face value. Interest is payable each December 31 Record the interest payment on December 31, 2013 Note: Enter debits before credits. Date General Journal Debit Credit December 31