PLEASE HELP ME

(b) When a computer systems RAM becomes full it can use virtual memory.
Explain what happens if the computer does not have any virtual memory.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

it won't be able to run

Explanation:

because computer runs on physical memory

Answer 2

If a computer does not have any virtual memory, the consequences of running out of physical RAM can be quite problematic.

When the RAM becomes full, the operating system relies on virtual memory as a way to supplement the physical memory shortage. Without virtual memory, the system would have no way to manage or accommodate the excess data that needs to be stored temporarily.

As a result, the computer would likely start experiencing severe slowdowns, freezing, or crashing when attempting to run applications that require more memory than is available.

In extreme cases, the system might even become unresponsive or display error messages indicating a lack of memory. Virtual memory acts as a safety net, allowing the computer to continue functioning by utilizing a portion of the hard drive as temporary memory storage when physical RAM is exhausted.

Without this essential feature, the computer's ability to multitask and handle memory-intensive tasks would be severely hindered.

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Related Questions

Identify the three common types of programming design. object-oriented programming design structured programming design group-centered programming design top-down programming design multi-developer programming design multi-language programming design

Answers

Answer:

-object oriented programming design

-structured programming design

-top down programming design

Explanation:

correct on edg 2020

Answer:

The answers are A,B, and C

Explanation:

Identify the three common types of programming design. object-oriented programming design structured

Cloud computing can be viewed as an online SaaS and data environment. True or false?

Answers

False. While cloud computing does involve the delivery of software and data over the internet, it is not limited to just SaaS (Software as a Service) and data environments.

Cloud computing can also include PaaS (Platform as a Service) and IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) offerings, as well as various other services and technologies. Cloud computing is a broad term that encompasses a wide range of technologies and services that enable users to access and utilize computing resources over the internet.

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When Bonita put together a research report for her company, what would she have included in the references section?

options:

articles and websites she used to gather information


supplementary tables and charts


methods she used for data collection


a high-level overview

HELP PLSS!!! RIGHT ANSWERS ONLY PLS!

Answers

Answer:

articles and websites she used to gather information

The social engineering hack example from the video involved hacking into someone's account at their cell phone provider None of these primary email address place of employment credit card company Real Future - Hacking (CC)

Answers

In the video example, the social engineering hack involved hacking into someone's account at their cell phone provider through deceptive tactics.

What was the target of the social engineering hack example in the video, and how did the attacker gain unauthorized access?

In the mentioned video, the social engineering hack example demonstrated the technique of hacking into someone's account at their cell phone provider.

This type of attack involves manipulating and deceiving the target to gain unauthorized access to their account, potentially allowing the attacker to intercept sensitive information or take control of the victim's communication channels. It is important to note that engaging in such activities is illegal and unethical.

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which of the following statements is true? a. dbms is database management software. b. dbms is a collection of programs that manages meta data. c. dbms is a set of processes that manages and control access to data stored in the database. d. all of the above e. none of the above

Answers

d. all of the above. Database Management System is referred to as "DBMS." It is a piece of software made specifically to manage and restrict access to data kept in databases.

"Database Management System" is what the abbreviation "DBMS" means. It is a piece of software created to manage and restrict users' access to databases' stores of data. Users can create, save, change, and retrieve data from databases using a variety of applications and procedures provided by a DBMS. The metadata, or information about the data in the database, such as the structure, data types, and relationships between tables, is also managed by a DBMS. The answers (a), (b), and (c) are all true, hence the right response is (d), "all of the above."

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A technician is working on a laptop and GPS is not functioning. What is a possible solution for this situation

Answers

A possible solution to a laptop whose global positioning system (GPS) is not functioning is to: verify that airplane mode is not activated on the laptop.

A laptop can be defined as a small, portable computer that is embedded with a keyboard and monitor, which is light enough in terms of weight, to be placed on the user's lap while working.

Assuming, the technician has verified that all the wireless settings on the laptop are correct.

Hence, the most likely problem for the laptop's global positioning system (GPS) not to function is that it is in airplane mode.

Generally, when an airplane mode is activated (turned on) on a laptop, all the software programs that uses wireless technology would not function, until it is disabled (turned off)

In conclusion, a possible solution to a laptop whose global positioning system (GPS) is not functioning is to verify that airplane mode is not activated (turned on) on the laptop.

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how graphical representation of spreadsheet data can be helpful in business

Answers

Answer: Business graphs are visual aids used to analyze data. They can make comparing multiple sets of data much easier, as sometimes trends and relationships are easily identified on the chart or graph. They also help to show the audience the data in a way that is easy to understand and remember.

Explanation:

The best time to vet a location is:


Question 1 options:


during post-production.



during production.



at the same time of day as the filming.



first thing in the morning.


Question 2 (2 points)

Which of these is most useful on a windy day?


Question 2 options:


boom



microphone windshield



tripod



extra camera


Question 3 (2 points)

Which of these statements is accurate?


Question 3 options:


No one on a set is responsible for someone else's safety.



Directors have an ethical obligation to protect everyone on the set.



Safety issues are best addressed in post-production.



Filming indoors eliminates safety issues.


Question 4 (2 points)

If equipment will be stored longer than a week:


Question 4 options:


remove the lens caps.



find a professional storage facility.



remove the batteries.



use cases designed especially for long-term storage.


Question 5 (2 points)

An equipment check:


Question 5 options:


is essential during production.



should only be done in pre-production.



should only be done in post-production.



should be done during pre- and post-production.

Answers

Answer:

1. at the same time of day as the filming.

2. microphone windshield.

3. Directors have an ethical obligation to protect everyone on the set.

4. remove the batteries.

5. should be done during pre- and post-production.

Explanation:

I just took the test

pls help
Question 2 (1 point)
True or false: when you use someone's copyrighted work in something you are
selling, you only have to cite them.

Answers

The given statement of copyrighted work is false.

What do you mean by copyright?

A copyright is a type of intellectual property that grants the owner the exclusive right to copy, distribute, adapt, display, and perform a creative work for a specific period of time. The creative work could be literary, artistic, educational, or musical in nature. The purpose of copyright is to protect the original expression of an idea in the form of a creative work, not the idea itself. A copyright is subject to public interest limitations, such as the fair use doctrine in the United States.

When you use someone's copyrighted work in something you are selling, you must get their permission first.

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Security standards do not have the force of law, but security regulations do. What is a security regulation?

Answers

A security regulation is a legally binding rule or standard that outlines specific requirements for protecting sensitive information and systems from unauthorized access, theft, or damage. Unlike security standards, which are generally voluntary guidelines established by industry groups or government agencies, security regulations are enforceable by law and carry penalties for noncompliance.

These regulations may be established by various governmental bodies, such as the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) in the United States or the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, and may apply to specific industries or sectors, such as healthcare or financial services. A security regulation typically includes specific measures that organizations must take to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their data and systems, such as conducting regular risk assessments, implementing access controls, and monitoring network activity.

In short, security regulations are a critical component of protecting sensitive information and maintaining the trust of customers and stakeholders, and organizations must ensure that they are in compliance to avoid legal and financial consequences.

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carrie is a network technician developing the internet protocol (ip) addressing roadmap for her company. while ip version 4 (ipv4) has been the standard for decades, ip version 6 (ipv6) can provide a much greater number of unique ip addresses. which addressing system should she designate for primary use on her roadmap and why?

Answers

IPv6 also improves on several IPv4 issues, such as a simplified header, faster routing, and multicast addressing. As a result, IPv6 should be designated for primary use on Carrie's roadmap.

As a network technician, developing the Internet Protocol (IP) addressing roadmap for her company, the addressing system that should be designated for primary use on her roadmap is Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6). This is because IP version 4 (IPv4) has been the standard for decades, but IP version 6 (IPv6) can provide a much greater number of unique IP addresses. It is important to note that the transition from IPv4 to IPv6 will not be an overnight transition but will occur over several years.There are two Internet Protocol (IP) versions: IP version 4 (IPv4) and IP version 6 (IPv6). IPv4 is currently the most commonly used protocol for transmitting data over the Internet. However, the number of IPv4 addresses available for assignment to devices is limited, and IPv6 can provide a much greater number of unique IP addresses.When compared to IPv4, IPv6 is the successor protocol that offers many advantages. IPv6 provides a much greater number of unique IP addresses, which is critical as the number of devices connected to the internet continues to increase.

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You are attempting to synthesize rRNA in a test tube using DNA isolated from mouse cells. In addition to the template DNA, ribonucleotides, and the necessary transcription factors, you should also add _________ to the test tube.

Answers

To synthesize rRNA in a test tube using DNA isolated from mouse cells, one should also add RNA polymerase to the test tube.

RNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the formation of RNA from a DNA template during transcription.
When a cell needs to produce a particular RNA molecule, the DNA strand containing the gene for that RNA molecule is first unwound and opened by RNA polymerase. Then, ribonucleotides (the building blocks of RNA) are added to the growing RNA molecule, following the template provided by the DNA strand. The RNA molecule is synthesized in a 5' to 3' direction, complementary to the template DNA strand.
In the case of synthesizing rRNA from mouse cell DNA, RNA polymerase is necessary to catalyze the formation of rRNA from the DNA template. rRNA is a key component of the ribosome, the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. Without sufficient amounts of rRNA, protein synthesis would be impaired and the cell would not be able to function properly.
Therefore, adding RNA polymerase to the test tube along with the template DNA, ribonucleotides, and transcription factors is crucial for synthesizing rRNA from mouse cell DNA in a test tube.

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who knows a good binary app or site for addition with 4 numbers ?​

Answers

What ? I don’t get it
I’m not sure but I guess you could use Math.way
who knows a good binary app or site for addition with 4 numbers ?

TRUE / FALSE. which functions are related to the subcutaneous layer of skin? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The subcutaneous layer of the skin, also known as the hypodermis or superficial fascia, is the deepest layer of the skin. It consists mainly of fat cells and connective tissue.

a. It provides insulation: The subcutaneous layer contains a layer of fat cells that act as an insulating barrier. This layer helps to regulate body temperature by providing insulation against heat loss or gain from the environment.

b. It acts as an energy reservoir: The subcutaneous layer stores adipose (fat) tissue, which serves as an energy reservoir for the body. During times of energy deficit, such as during fasting or intense physical activity, the stored fat can be broken down and used as a source of energy.

e. It acts as a mechanical shock absorber: The subcutaneous layer acts as a cushioning layer, protecting the underlying structures such as muscles, blood vessels, and nerves from mechanical impacts and trauma. It helps to distribute and absorb external forces, acting as a shock absorber for the body.

c. It prevents systemic dehydration: This statement is not accurate. The subcutaneous layer of the skin does not play a direct role in preventing systemic dehydration. The primary responsibility for maintaining hydration lies with the body's internal systems, such as the kidneys, hormone regulation, and fluid intake.

d. It provides cells for wound healing: This statement is not accurate either. The subcutaneous layer of the skin does not directly provide cells for wound healing. Wound healing primarily involves the cellular processes of the dermis and epidermis layers of the skin, including migration, proliferation, and differentiation of specialized cells.

So, the correct responses are a, b, and e.

The question should be

Which functions are related to the subcutaneous layer of skin? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

a. It provides insulation.

b. It acts as an energy reservoir.

c. It prevents systemic dehydration.

d. It provides cells for wound healing.

e. It acts as a mechanical shock absorber.

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Using complete sentences post a detailed response to the following.

What audience are you thinking of targeting for the game you will design? Are you targeting an age group, an interest group, or a different kind of group? Describe your audience in detail, explaining why you think they would like to play your game.
please help me

Answers

Answer:

an interest group

Explanation:

When designing a video game I believe that the best target group would be an interest group. Focusing on a specific interest group will allow you to design a game, knowing that there are people truly passionate about that interest and who will play the game. Targeting an age group makes things difficult because you have to limit your creativity to that age group and even still there may not be much interest in that age group for your category of game. Therefore, an interest group is the best option and gives you the freedom to unlock your creativity without having to limit your game due to age concerns.

you can use tables for layout work. However, in XHTML, each form control should have its own ______ element

a. method
b. textarea
c. label
d. fieldset

Answers

Answer:

c. label

Explanation:

What aspects of your personal style would you like to share with the world?

Answers

Answer:

Your personal style reflects who you are as an individual. It represents aspects of your personality – what you like and dislike, how you see yourself. The clothes you wear are more than just pieces of fabric stitched together, they show who you are.

___________ is the system is designed to operate continuously with no scheduled outages. It might experience unscheduled outages. Such systems often rely on special hardware to allow routine maintenance and component swapping without shutting down the system. A. High availability B. Routine availability C. Continuous availability D. Continuous operation

Answers

Answer:

It's a continuous operation

Select the required tool or procedure required for the serialization process for Wyse D90Q10. USB Serialization Key Log into the OS and set Security Key under System Preference Dell Wyse USB imaging tool ¡EEPROG

Answers

Thus,  the USB Serialization Key and Security Key under System Preferences are related to device security and configuration, they are not specifically required for the serialization process.

To perform the serialization process for a Wyse D90Q10, you'll need to use the Dell Wyse USB Imaging Tool. This tool allows you to create a bootable USB drive that can be used to configure the device, including setting the serialization values. Here's a concise explanation of the steps involved:

1. Download the Dell Wyse USB Imaging Tool from the official Dell website.
2. Install the tool on a compatible Windows computer.
3. Connect a USB flash drive to the computer and launch the Dell Wyse USB Imaging Tool.
4. Select the appropriate firmware image file (usually a .WIM file) for the D90Q10 model.
5. Follow the on-screen instructions to create a bootable USB drive.
6. Safely eject the USB drive from the computer.
7. Power off the Wyse D90Q10 device and connect the USB drive to one of its USB ports.
8. Power on the device while pressing and holding the "P" key on the keyboard to enter the Boot Menu.
9. In the Boot Menu, select the USB drive as the boot device and press Enter.
10. The Dell Wyse USB Imaging Tool will launch and guide you through the serialization process.

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What are the Attitude Control System Errors
that impacted the TIMED NASA mission?

Answers

The Attitude Control System (ACS) is a system that governs the spacecraft's position and orientation in space. When it comes to the TIMED mission, the Attitude Control System (ACS) had two major issues, which are elaborated below:1. A pitch rate gyro drift: It was discovered that one of the pitch rate gyros was affected by a constant drift, which was most likely caused by radiation exposure.

This resulted in attitude estimation errors, which meant that the spacecraft was pointed in the wrong direction.2. An ACS magnetic sensor failure: A sudden voltage spike caused a magnetic sensor's permanent failure, which then resulted in large attitude errors. The ACS magnetic sensor is an important component of the ACS since it determines the spacecraft's orientation in space.

The sensor in question was unable to estimate the correct magnetic field vector and, as a result, could not calculate the spacecraft's orientation correctly. Both the pitch rate gyro drift and the magnetic sensor failure led to the spacecraft's inability to maintain its orientation in space.

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With respect to iot security, what term is used to describe the digital and physical vulnerabilities of the iot hardware and software environment?
a. Traffic Congestion
b. Device Manipulation
c. Attack Surface
d. Environmental Monitoring

Answers

Answer: Answer Surface

Explanation:

Which of the following are second messengers? CAMP only inositol triphosphate (IP3) only calcium only CAMP, calcium and inositol triphosphate (IP3) both CAMP and inositol triphosphate (IP3) The process where an amino acid can enter the Krebs cycle is called: Transamination Gluconeogenesis Glycolysis Oxidative Phosphorylation

Answers

CAMP, calcium, and inositol triphosphate (IP3) are the second messengers among the given options. The process by which an amino acid enters the Krebs cycle is called transamination.

Second messengers are intracellular signaling molecules that convey signals that are initiated by extracellular signaling molecules, such as hormones and growth factors, to the effector proteins, such as enzymes and ion channels, in the cytoplasm of a cell.

There are various types of second messengers like cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), inositol triphosphate (IP3), calcium ions (Ca2+), cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), diacylglycerol (DAG), and nitric oxide (NO).Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), calcium ions (Ca2+), and inositol triphosphate (IP3) are the three most important second messengers involved in various signaling pathways.

The process by which an amino acid enters the Krebs cycle is called transamination.

Transamination is a biochemical reaction that transforms one amino acid into another by transferring an amine group. It is the first step in the process of amino acid degradation and anabolism, as well as a primary mechanism for the synthesis of nonessential amino acids in the body.

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what is the concept used to verify the identity of the remote host with ssh connections?

Answers

The concept used to verify the identity of the remote host with SSH connections is known as host key verification. SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic protocol that enables secure communication between two computers over an unsecured network.

It employs public-key cryptography to authenticate the remote computer and encrypt the data transmitted between them. When an SSH client connects to an SSH server, the two computers must establish a trust relationship to ensure that they are communicating with the intended partner. The SSH protocol utilizes a public-key cryptography-based system for verifying the identity of the remote host.

The SSH server generates a host key (public/private key pair) when it is first installed, and this key is used to authenticate the server to the client. The host key is used by the client to verify that the server it is connecting to is the intended server.

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__________ sourcing is a technique in problem-solving where the problem is shared with many people so that the people can offer potential solutions.

Answers

Answer:

crowd (crowdsourcing)

Explanation:

binary into decimal
100101

Answers

Answer:

100101= 37....

Explanation:

Hope it helps you.....

binary into decimal100101

Answer:

37

I believe it will help you maybe, hope it helps you

PLEAS help me with the number triangle

PLEAS help me with the number triangle

Answers

Answer:

 public static void makeNumberTriangle() {

   for(int i=1; i<=5; i++) {

     for(int j=1; j<=i; j++) {

       System.out.printf("%d ",j);

     }

     System.out.println();

   }

 }

Explanation:

You were very close!

T/F the campus backbone is usually faster than the backbones used inside buildings.

Answers

True. The campus backbone is usually faster than the backbones used inside buildings.

The campus backbone typically refers to the high-speed network infrastructure that connects multiple buildings or areas within a campus or organization. It serves as the primary pathway for data transmission between different parts of the network.

The campus backbone is designed to handle a larger volume of data traffic and is often built with higher capacity and faster network equipment compared to the backbones used inside individual buildings. This is because the campus backbone needs to accommodate the aggregate traffic from various buildings, departments, and users within the campus.

On the other hand, the backbones used inside buildings, known as building backbones or horizontal backbones, connect different floors or sections within a building. While they are still crucial for local connectivity, they generally have lower capacity and speed requirements compared to the campus backbone.

It's important to note that the actual speed of a network backbone can vary depending on factors such as technology, equipment, and network design decisions. However, in general, the campus backbone is expected to provide faster data transmission capabilities compared to the backbones used inside buildings.

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Which term best describes a popular marketing strategy that centers

around the acquisition, enhancement, and retention of long-term

relationships that add value for the organization and the customer?

Answers

Answer:

Customer Relationship Management (CRM).

Explanation:

CRM is an acronym for customer relationship management and it typically involves the process of combining strategies, techniques, practices and technology so as to effectively and efficiently manage their customer data in order to improve and enhance customer satisfaction.

This ultimately implies that, these employees are saddled with the responsibility of ensuring the customer are satisfied and happy with their service at all times.

Marketing can be defined as the process of developing promotional techniques and sales strategies by a firm, so as to enhance the availability of goods and services to meet the needs of the end users or consumers through advertising and market research. It comprises of all the activities such as, identifying, anticipating set of medium and processes for creating, promoting, delivering, and exchanging goods and services that has value for customers.

Basically, CRM involves understanding customer needs, building and maintaining healthy long-term relationships with them, in order to add value or scale up your business.

Hence, customer relationship management (CRM) is one of the popular marketing strategy that is mainly based on the acquisition, enhancement, and retention of long-term relationships that add value for the organization and the customer.

what are the outputs of these please help

what are the outputs of these please help

Answers

Answer:

monkey know monkey not tell

Explanation:

Answer:

it will ask for a number.

if that number < or = to 0

then

it will add three to that number.

if that is not true

and that number > 0 and that number < 5

than

it will add one to that number.

if none of those are true

than

it will subtract 5 to that number.

Explanation:

Use logic gates to make the output

Use logic gates to make the output

Answers

To get output B, either connect input B directly to output B, or use an OR gate where you connect one input to GND, because B OR 0 = B. To get C|D, connect C and D to inputs of an OR gate, and connect the output to C|D.

What is Gate?

Gate in engineering is a device used to control and regulate the flow of electricity, liquids, gases, or particles. It is used to ensure that the desired flow of current, liquid, gas or particles is maintained safely and efficiently.

It's not possible to do it with the given gates only. If all four inputs were 0, you wouldn't be able to get a 1 from any combination of AND gates. You have to incorporate NOR gates.

Therefore, To get C|D, connect C and D to inputs of an OR gate, and connect the output to C|D.

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Why do 3rd parties struggle to win elections How do the justices interpret the Constitution in order to determine its meaning in contested cases? 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