Polishing the contact area between restored teeth is: group of answer choices undesirable because it increases treatment time.
Desirable for esthetic reasons. desirable for esthetic and functional reasons.
It is undesirable because it might leave a contact open.
A person feels confident and fit when they have healthy teeth and gums. The tooth enamel becomes discolored or yellowed as people go about their everyday activities and engage in various eating and drinking behaviors. Most dental offices have traditionally connected polishing with the prophylaxis treatment, which patients are aware of and anticipate. However, overuse of the polishing method leads to wear of the tooth's surface structure. This would cause local deposits to accumulate more quickly. Additionally, the process of regenerating the fluoride-rich coating of the tooth is lengthy. Polishing is therefore no longer recommended as a regular oral prophylactic technique and is instead done only when the patient requires it.
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A cyp2d6 ultrarapid metabolizer (um) would require ___________ dose of a drug that is metabolized by cyp2d6 than a cyp2d6 extensive metabolizer (em).
A CYP2D6 Ultrarapid Metabolizer (UM) would require a higher dose of a drug that is metabolized by CYP2D6 than a CYP2D6 Extensive Metabolizer (EM).
Ultrarapid Metabolizer is a drug metabolism phenotype that describes the ability to metabolize a drug at much faster rates than expected. Individuals who are UMs have an enzyme activity score greater than 2.5, often due to an increased copy number of the CYP2D6 gene.
Extensive metabolizers (EM) are the most common and are the type of people for which drugs are designed. It has the normal amount of medication at standard doses. However, up to 7% of Caucasians are poor metabolizers of drugs metabolized by the CYP2D6 enzyme.
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Which of the following local anesthetic nerve blocks when administered together would provide the GREATEST area of anesthesia to a maxillary quadrant?
a. Anterior superior alveolar, posterior superior alveolar, and greater palatine nerve blocks
b. Middle superior alveolar and greater palatine nerve blocks
c. Middle superior alveolar, posterior superior alveolar, and greater palatine nerve blocks
d. Anterior middle superior alveolar and posterior superior alveolar nerve blocks
To provide the greatest area of anesthesia to a maxillary quadrant, the local anesthetic nerve blocks that should be administered together are option C: Middle superior alveolar, posterior superior alveolar, and greater palatine nerve blocks.
The maxillary quadrant refers to the upper jaw, specifically one-fourth of the maxillary arch. To achieve comprehensive anesthesia in this area, it is essential to block the nerves that supply sensation to different regions within the quadrant. Option A includes the anterior superior alveolar, posterior superior alveolar, and greater palatine nerve blocks. While these blocks cover significant areas of the maxillary quadrant, they do not provide anesthesia to the middle superior alveolar region.Option B includes the middle superior alveolar and greater palatine nerve blocks. Although these blocks cover some areas of the maxillary quadrant, they do not include the posterior superior alveolar region.Option D includes the anterior middle superior alveolar and posterior superior alveolar nerve blocks. While they cover the anterior and posterior regions, they do not include the greater palatine nerve block, which provides anesthesia to the posterior part of the hard palate.Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice as it includes the middle superior alveolar, posterior superior alveolar, and greater palatine nerve blocks. This combination ensures comprehensive anesthesia in the maxillary quadrant, covering both anterior and posterior regions as well as the hard palate.
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clients admitted to the emergency department for injuries from a gas explosion with which conditions would be provided treatment immediately To which group of clients should treatment be provided immediately? The nurse is conducting triage under mass casualty conditions.
When conducing triage under mass casualty conditions caused due to a gas explosion, the immediate treatment should be provided to the patients having life-threatening injuries and excessive bleeding.
Triage is the practice of sorting the types of patients in different groups and allocating the specific treatment to each group in a mass disaster condition. It is a priority based treatment where urgent attention is provided to patients with severe conditions.
Bleeding is the unnecessary loss of blood due to some wound or injury. Bleeding can occurs outside the body or even internally. The clotting agents of the body cannot clog this level of blood loss.
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Chris has a thrombotic disorder. Which class of medications would his doctor prescribe to inhibit the thrombosis?
Answer:
cancer? with a side of herps ?
effect of insulin on glucose transport?
Answer:
Insulin acts by growing the glucose transit rate of each runner by growing the amount of practical glucose runner and/or a mix of two structures, and so insulin refusal in adipose cells is combined with a abate in glut4 runner number and action.
Hyperglycemia in individuals with diabetic neuropathy leads to the inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the dorsal root ganglion. Which additional process will be inhibited in the dorsal root ganglion under conditions that cause diabetic neuropathy? A) the glyoxylate cycle B) lactic acid fermentation C) the citric acid cycle D) glycolysis
Answer: (C) The citric Acid Cycle
Explanation:
a drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter s would be termed a(n)
Answer:
indirect antagonist
Explanation:
In pharmacology, an indirect agonist or indirect-acting agonist is a substance that enhances the release or action of an endogenous neurotransmitter but has no specific agonist activity at the neurotransmitter receptor itself.
A drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter would be termed an antagonist.
Antagonists work by blocking the action of the neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic receptor. This can be accomplished either by directly blocking the binding site on the receptor, or by interfering with the ion channels associated with the receptor.
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What is a contraindication?
A) A chemical used for therapeutic
B) The diffenckence between the therapeutic dose and toxic dose
c)A predicted but not desired response
D) A condition in which the use of a specific medication should be avoided
Answer: medicine, a contraindication is a condition or factor that serves as a reason to withhold a certain medical treatment due to the harm that it would cause the patient. Contraindication is the opposite of indication, which is a reason to use a certain treatment.
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1. Describe the major bones and bony landmarks of the human skeleton.
Answer:
An example of a bony landmark is the head of the humerus and femur. These heads make up ball and socket joints of the shoulder and hip Hard surface forms are also known as bony landmarks—parts of bones (ridges, bumps, depressions) that are positioned close to the skin, creating visual landmarks on the surface form
Explanation:yw
What pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another? Give an example and explain.
The pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another is liver disease.
Spironolactone is the class one diuretic recommended for a patient with cirrhosis and edema.
What are diuretics ?A diuretic is described as any substance that promotes diuresis, the increased production of urine and this might includes forced diuresis.
There are three known types of diuretics and they include:
Thiazide. Loop. Potassium sparing.The use of some diuretics is also prominent in cases of overdose or poisoning as they help to increase the excretion of certain substances from the patient's body.
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A nurse is teaching a patient who has been diagnosed with acute kidney injury about the oliguric phase. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a) renal function is reestablished
b) BUN and serum creatinine levels decreased
c) glomerular filtration rate (GFR) recovers
d) urine output < 400 mL / 24 hours
Urine output < 400 mL / 24 hours information should the nurse include in the teaching.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) occurs when your kidneys suddenly cease to function properly. It can range from minor kidney function loss to total kidney failure. AKI usually occurs as a result of another serious illness. It isn't the result of a physical blow to a kidneys, even as name might suggest. Acute renal failure occurs in a matter of hours or days. It may be fatal. It's most common in those who are critically ill already and hospitalised.
Reduced urinary output, swelling as a result of retention, nausea, fatigue, and shortness of breath are all symptoms. Sometimes symptoms may be subtle or might not appear at all. Treatments include fluids, medication, and dialysis, throughout addition to addressing the underlying cause.
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is the right of patients to have all of their health information kept private? confidentiality, security, accountability, privacy
Of those four options, confidentiality seems to be the most fitting of that definition. Confidentiality provides security and privacy, while holding healthcare providers accountable for do all three or otherwise leaving themselves vulnerable to legal action.
A 45-year-old female (weight 70 kg, height 168 cm) requires erythromycin IV for severe community-acquired pneumonia. Her recent serum creatinine is 130 micromol/L, stable. The dose is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. Erythromcycin powder for injection is dissolved 1 g in 20 mL water for injection, then diluted to a concentration of 1 to 5 mg/mL for intermittent infusion in sodium chloride 0.9% over 20–60 minutes.
Which of the following statements are true?
More than one answer is correct. You need to select all correct answers to pass this question.
A.Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg
B.Using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min
C.Correct dose could be stated as 3000 mg in 24 hours, divided into 4 doses
D.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 750 mL
E.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL
The true options are Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg, using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min. The correct options are A, B, C, and E.
What is infusion?Infusion is basically the method of putting fluids, including drugs, into the bloodstream.
Ideal body weight (IBW) for this patient can be calculated using the following formula:
IBW (kg) = 45.5 + 2.3 (height in inches - 60) = 45.5 + 2.3 (66.1 - 60) = 58.1 kg
Estimated creatinine clearance (CrCl) using the Cockcroft and Gault formula can be calculated as follows:
CrCl (mL/min) = [(140 - age) x weight (kg)] / (72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL))
CrCl = [(140 - 45) x 70] / (72 x 130/88.4) = 44 mL/min
The correct dose of erythromycin is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. For a 70 kg patient, the total daily dose would be:
12.5 mg/kg x 70 kg = 875 mg every 6 hours
Total daily dose = 875 mg x 4 = 3500 mg
To adjust for renal impairment, the dose should be decreased. In this case, no adjustment is necessary since the serum creatinine is stable.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 875 mL, not 750 mL.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL, which is correct.
Thus, the correct options are A, B, C, and E.
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Analyzing Teamwork
Two pharmacy technicians have been thinking about the best way to organize empty bottles and labels in the pharmacy. They_________ and come up with a solution.
During the process, each technician listened to the other's ideas, demonstrating _______ for a coworker.
Answer:
1. Collaborate
2. Respect
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Sam has late stage dementia. What common late stage risk should staff be MOST concerned about?
Sam has late-stage dementia, so the most common late-stage risk that staff should be most concerned about is the risk for pressure injuries that is in the first option.
What is the significance of late-stage dementia?Late-stage dementia patients have difficulty moving and changing positions on their own, have an increased risk of infection, and face severe cognitive decline and functional impairment and sleep disturbances are also seen in such patients at late stages.
Hence, Sam has late-stage dementia, so the most common late-stage risk that staff should be most concerned about is the risk for pressure injuries that is in the first option.
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The question is incomplete, the complete question is below,
Sam has late stage dementia What common late stage risk should staff be MOST concerned about
Risk for pressure injuries
Risk for sleep disturbances
Risk for losing track of time
Risk for losing the ability to talk
The nurse administers ciprofloxacin (Cipro), a fluoroquinolone, to a client. To prevent a food—drug interaction, the nurse should remove which item from the client's lunch tray?
1. Orange juice
2. Tomatoes
3. Coffee
4. Chocolate cake
Option A is correct. The nurse should remove orange juice from the client's lunch tray to prevent a food-drug interaction with ciprofloxacin.
Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, can interact with certain foods and beverages, leading to decreased absorption and decreased effectiveness of the medication. Orange juice contains high levels of calcium and iron, which can reduce the absorption of fluoroquinolones.
Therefore, the nurse should avoid giving the client orange juice or advise the client to avoid it for a period of time after taking the medication. Tomatoes, coffee, and chocolate cake are unlikely to interact with ciprofloxacin and do not need to be removed.
However, it is always important to review the client's medication list and consult with a healthcare provider to determine if there are any other food or drug interactions that need to be considered.
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sometimes you just want to yeet people out windows. How do you not do this.
1 go outside at 11:00 pm and scream and shout. draw them and draw how you feel then go to some form of lake/ river and let your feeling of hate drift away...
the school nurse noticed a preschool-aged girl scratching her head all the time. when asked, the little girl said i have ticking feeling in my scalp. the school nurse should investigate further for .
The school nurse should investigate further for pediculosis capitis in a girl who is always scratching her head.
Pediculosis capitis is a condition in which small insects infest the human scalp. They are generally called lice and are scientifically known as Pediculus humanus capitis. These are more found in people sharing hair brushes, scarves, and hats with others. Also, this is more common in younger females than males.
The life cycle of a female louse is about 1 month. It lays 7-10 eggs per day and these eggs are set against the head scalp of the host. These eggs release nymphs after 8 days of hatching and then the nymph requires another 8 days to become mature. They grasp the host's hair and feed on their head, sucking blood.
Antiparasitics are generally prescribed. Medicated shampoos and creams are recommended to rinse these lice off the scalp.
This is done to get rid of scratching the head over and over again.
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Immediately after the kidney is removed from the donor, it is transported to an operating room where the recipient is waiting, already unconscious and prepped for surgery. List one anatomical part that needs to be connected with a suture in order for the donor's kidney to be functional in the recipient.
Answer:
The external iliac artery and vein.
Explanation:
The external iliac artery and vein are large blood vessels that connect the femoral blood channels to the iliac blood network. They serve as the blood supply for a donated kidney in kidney transplant.
A carpenter has been contracted by the facility to build a platform in a room with cannabis plants. the contractor must obtain a facility agent identification card if the work will take more than ___ days.
A carpenter has been contracted by the facility to build a platform in a room with cannabis plants. the contractor must obtain a facility agent identification card if the work will take more than 30 days.
What is an identification card?Generally, Any piece of paper that may be presented as evidence that a person is who they claim to be is considered an identification document.
If it is issued in the form of a little card around the size of a conventional credit card, it is often referred to as an identification card or a passport card.
In conclusion, The business has hired a carpenter to erect a platform in a cannabis-growing area. If the work is expected to take more than 30 days, the contractor is required to get a facility agent identity card.
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TASK TIME A. Greet/register the patient 3 minutes/patient B. Optometrist conducts eye exam 20 minutes/patient C. Frame/lenses selection 24 minutes/patient D. Glasses made (process can run 6 pairs of glasses at the same time) 66 minutes/patient E. Final fitting 5 minutes/patient
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Solution - Answer (a): The current maximum output would depend on slowest operations and that is B. Optometrist conducting eye exam (25min per patient) Hence total time available for task(B)= 10 hours * 60 min - (2 minute for first patient to greet + frame selection 20 min + glasses made 60 min + final fitting 5 min) = 600 -87 = 513 minutes. Hence, maximum capacity = 513/25 = 20.52 ~ 20 patients Answer (b): Since, the slowest process is B. Optometrist conducting eye test, if a person were to be added it must be there. The added capacity at no other place would increase total capacity of the patients processed in a day. Answer (c): In the mentioned model, the process of D and E, totaling to 65 minutes would be eliminated. And hence, in day...
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A bottle contains 70 milliliters (mL) of liquid medication. If the average dose is 0.5 mL, how many doses does the bottle hold?
Round to the nearest whole number.
Answer: The bottle holds 140 doses
a patient who had a gastroduodenostomy (billroth i operation) for stomach cancer reports generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness 15 to 30 minutes after eating. what long-term complication does the nurse suspect is occurring?
The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing dumping syndrome, a long-term complication following a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I operation) for stomach cancer.
Dumping syndrome occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine, causing symptoms such as generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness.
Dumping syndrome is a common long-term complication following a gastroduodenostomy, also known as a Billroth I operation, which is a surgical procedure performed for stomach cancer. It occurs when food rapidly empties from the stomach into the small intestine.
The symptoms associated with dumping syndrome include generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness. These symptoms arise due to the rapid influx of food into the small intestine, leading to a shift of fluid from the bloodstream to the intestinal lumen.
This results in a drop in blood volume and a subsequent decrease in blood pressure, causing the aforementioned symptoms. The nurse's suspicion is based on the patient's presentation of these characteristic symptoms.
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Frankenstein speaks of the "enticements of science." after the scientific revolution, what fears did people have about these scientific enticements?
chapter 3, pg. 30: "none but those who have experienced them can conceive of the enticements of science. in other studies you go as far as others have gone before you, and there is nothing more to know; but in a scientific pursuit there is continual food for discovery and wonder."
During the time of the scientific revolution, people had fears about the potential dangers of scientific advancement and its "enticements."
Many feared that scientists would try to play God and create life, just as Victor Frankenstein did in the novel. There was also concern about the ethical implications of scientific experimentation, including the use of human subjects for medical research.
Additionally, there were worries about the unintended consequences of scientific discoveries and the possibility of new technologies being used for destructive purposes. Overall, the enticements of science brought both excitement and apprehension as people faced a rapidly changing world that was expanding the limits of human knowledge and capabilities.
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73 ml of water followed by 25 ml of juice what is the juice percentage
Answer: ≈ 25.5%
1- Find the total of water and juice: 73+25=98
2- Divide amount of juice by total: 25/98≈0.25510
3- Convert to percentages 0.25510----> 25.510%
4- You can round to 25.5% if you want
NOTE- THE ANSWER IS AN APPROXIMATION, IT IS NOT EXACT
In making collection telephone calls to a group of accounts, how should the accounts be organized to determine where to begin?
Select one:
a. Organize the accounts alphabetically and start with the letter A.
b. Organize the accounts by account number and start with number 1.
c. Organize the accounts according the number of days past the date of service the account is delinquent.
d. Determine which patient you think may be easier to collect from and start with that account.
Answer:
a
Explanation:
because it starts saoo
how to join the teeth if there is distance betwwen 2 teeths except going to dentist
Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?
Answer:
A language communication barrier
Explanation:
sign LANGUAGE :D
all of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for hypoglycemia. The correct answer is option a.
Air polishing is a dental procedure that uses a jet of air, water, and abrasive particles to remove stains and plaque from the teeth.
While it is generally safe and effective, there are certain situations or systemic conditions where air polishing may not be recommended.
Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not directly related to the safety or suitability of air polishing.
Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood glucose levels, and it primarily affects the body's energy metabolism.
It does not have a direct impact on the respiratory system, lung function, or the risk of infection.
On the other hand, conditions such as emphysema, active tuberculosis, and asthma can be contraindications for air polishing.
Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that affects the air sacs in the lungs, impairing breathing and increasing the risk of lung complications.
Active tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs, and air polishing may increase the risk of spreading the infection.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and increased sensitivity, and the use of air polishing may trigger asthma symptoms or cause respiratory distress in some individuals.
So, the correct answer is option a. Hypoglycemia.
The complete question is -
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Emphysema
c. Active tuberculosis
d. Asthma
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Damage to the occipital lobe would most likely affect a person’s.
Injury to the occipital lobes may lead to vision impairments such as blindness or blind spots; visual distortions and visual inattention. The occipital lobes are also associated with various behaviors and functions that include: visual recognition; visual attention; and spatial analysis.