The block's speed at point B will be less than 1.50 m/s due to the friction acting on it as it moves down the rough surface of the bowl.
We need to consider the motion of the block of mass m=200 g from point A to point B. Since the surface of the bowl is rough, there will be friction acting on the block as it moves.
The friction force will oppose the motion of the block, causing it to slow down. As a result, the block's speed at point B will be less than its initial speed at point A.
To calculate the block's speed at point B, we can use the principles of conservation of energy. At point A, the block has gravitational potential energy due to its height above the ground. As the block moves down the bowl, this potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.
Since the block is released from rest at point A, its initial kinetic energy is zero. Therefore, the initial potential energy at point A is equal to the final kinetic energy at point B.
Using the formula for gravitational potential energy, we have:
m * g * h = (1/2) * m * v²
Where m is the mass of the block (200 g), g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²), h is the height of point A above the ground, and v is the speed of the block at point B (1.50 m/s).
We can rearrange the equation to solve for v:
v = √(2 * g * h)
Since we do not have information about the height of point A above the ground, we cannot calculate the exact speed at point B. However, we can conclude that the block's speed at point B will be less than 1.50 m/s due to the presence of friction.
In summary, the block's speed at point B will be less than 1.50 m/s due to the friction acting on it as it moves down the rough surface of the bowl.
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I'LL MARK YOU BRAINLIST!!
ali starts moving his car from rest and accelerates it at 5 m/s^2 over 8 seconds. what is the velocity of ali's car reached by the end of these 8 seconds ?
Explanation:
u=0, v=?, a=5m/s², t=8sec
So, by the formula,
v=u+at
v=0+5×8
v=40m/s.
hope this helps you .
If you have two different sized velocity vectors representing two objects moving in the same direction, then what can you conclude? a. Their magnitudes are the same. c. One object has a greater velocity then the other. b. Their magnitudes are different. d. Both B and C.
If you have two different sized velocity vectors representing two objects moving in the same direction, then you can conclude both B and C are correct.
A velocity vector is the rate of change of an object's position. A velocity vector has both magnitude and direction. The magnitude of the velocity vector gives the speed of the object while the direction of the vector gives the direction of the object's velocity.
If a vector's size is longer than the other, it means that the vector has a magnitude higher than the other. If the magnitude is higher, the velocity will be higher.
Therefore, if you have two different sized velocity vectors representing two objects moving in the same direction, then you can conclude both B and C are correct.
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You have lenses with the following focal lengths:f= 25mm, 50mm, 100mm, and 200mm. - n what arrangement would you use these lenses to get the highest-power telescope? Fo=200, fe=25
Answer:To use these lenses to get the highest power telescopeFo=
Explanation:
The magnifier. Then we need only one lens. The angular exaggeration of the magnifier when the object is put veritably near to the focal point is given by the formula
M =
f
25 cm
where ff is the focal point. thus, the lower the focal length the larger the exaggeration therefore we should elect the lens with the shortest focal length which is the one with
f = 25 mm.
Step 2
2 of 4
{ The microscope.} The microscope. Then we need two lenses. The angular exaggeration of the microscope is given by
L ⋅ 25 cm
thus, lower the product of the focal lengths of the two lenses the larger the exaggeration. thus we should elect the two lenses with the lowest focal lengths i.e. boxed{f_0 = 25
= 25 mm and f
e
= 50 mm.
Step 3
3 of 4
{ The telescope.} The telescope. Then we need two lenses. The angular exaggeration of the telescope is given by
M = - frac{f_0}{f_e}
M = −
f
e
f
0
i.e. it's directly commensurable to the focal length of the objective lens and equally commensurable to the focal length of the eye piece lens. thus we should elect the objective lens with the loftiest possible focal length and the eyepiece lens with the lowest possible focal length
what is the difference between the milky way and the milky way galaxy?
The Milky Way and the Milky Way Galaxy are actually the same things. However, term-wise, the "Milky Way" is the band of diffuse light around (our) celestial sphere, why the Milky Way Galaxy is a spiral galaxy (that our solar system is in).
The Milky Way is a spiral-shaped galaxy that contains our Solar System, including the Earth and the Sun. It is one of the billions of galaxies in the observable universe and is home to an estimated 100 billion stars.
The term "Milky Way" is often used to refer to the band of light that we can see in the night sky, which is actually the combined light of billions of stars in our galaxy. However, the term "Milky Way Galaxy" is also used to refer to the entire galaxy itself. So, in short, there is no difference between the Milky Way and the Milky Way Galaxy; they are two terms used to refer to the same thing.
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A uniform board is leaning against a smooth vertical wall. The board is at an angle above the horizontal ground. The coefficient of static friction between the ground and the lower end of the board is 0.320. Find the smallest value for the angle , such that the lower end of the board does not slide along the ground.
The smallest value for the angle θ, at which the lower end of the board does not slide along the ground, is π/4 radians or 45 degrees, determined by the condition μ ≤ -tanθ ≤ -1, where μ is the coefficient of static friction.
To find the smallest value for the angle θ at which the lower end of the board does not slide along the ground, we can analyze the forces acting on the board.
Let's consider the forces involved:
1. Weight (W): The weight of the board acts vertically downward. Its magnitude is given by W = mg, where m is the mass of the board and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
2. Normal Force (N): The normal force acts perpendicular to the surface of contact between the lower end of the board and the ground. Since the board is leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the normal force acts in the horizontal direction.
3. Friction Force (f): The friction force acts parallel to the surface of contact between the lower end of the board and the ground. Its magnitude is given by f = μN, where μ is the coefficient of static friction between the ground and the board, and N is the normal force.
In this case, we want to find the smallest angle θ at which the lower end of the board does not slide. This means the friction force must be equal to or greater than the component of the weight that acts parallel to the ground.
The component of the weight parallel to the ground is given by \(\[W_\parallel\) = Wsinθ.
Therefore, we have the inequality: f ≥ \(\[W_\parallel\).
Substituting the expressions for f and \(\[W_\parallel\), we get:
μN ≥ Wsinθ.
Since the normal force N is the only unknown quantity, we can express it in terms of θ and solve for the smallest value of θ.
The normal force N can be found by considering the vertical equilibrium of forces:
N + Wcosθ = 0.
Solving for N, we have N = -Wcosθ.
Substituting this expression for N in the inequality, we get:
μ(-Wcosθ) ≥ Wsinθ.
Dividing both sides of the inequality by -W, we obtain:
μcosθ ≤ -sinθ.
Now, we can solve this inequality for the smallest value of θ. However, it's important to note that the coefficient of static friction (μ) cannot be negative, so we can divide both sides of the inequality by cosθ without changing the direction of the inequality:
μ ≤ -tanθ.
To find the smallest value of θ, we need to find the smallest value of -tanθ. This occurs when -tanθ equals its maximum possible value, which is -1.
Therefore, we have:
μ ≤ -tanθ ≤ -1.
Taking the inverse tangent of both sides of the inequality, we find:
θ ≤ arctan(1) = π/4.
So, the smallest value for the angle θ, such that the lower end of the board does not slide along the ground, is π/4 radians or 45 degrees.
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the spongy bone is composed of osteocytes
True or false
It is true that the spongy bone is composed of osteocytes
The spongy bone is also called as cancellous bone or trabecular bone. It is commonly found in animals. It is porous and vascularized. It contains red bone marrow. It is commonly located at the end of a long bone and is surrounded by a compact bone.
The functions of spongy bone is as follows:
Stores of bone marrow Erythropoiesis occurs in itReduces skeleton weightBones become strong and flexibleStores mineralsTherefore, it is true that the spongy bone is composed of osteocytes
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A sportscar has a mass of 1500 kg and accelerates at 5 meters per second squared. What is the magnitude of the force acting on the sportscar?
Answer:
7500 Newtons
Explanation:
Mass of the sportscar= 1500 kg
Acceleration of the sportscar= 5m/s^2
Hence, let the Force acting on it be F
\(We\ know\ that,\\Force=Mass*Acceleration\\F=ma\\\\Here,\\F=1500*5\\=7500 kg m/s^2\ or\ 7500\ Newtons\)
A 13,735.85 W crane raised a crate in 172.95 s. How much work did the crane do?
The work that have been done by the crane is 2.4 MJ.
What is the work done?We have to note that the work that has been done is the same as the energy. That we say that the work and the energy are dimensionally equivalent. The statement that I have just made here is going to guide us in the question that we want to solve here.
Thus we know that;
Energy = Work = power * time
This is so because we define the power as the rate of doing work.
Thus we have the work as; 13,735.85 W * 172.95 s
= 2.4 MJ
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=
when light is reflected from a flat mirror, what type of images can be formed?
When light is reflected from a flat mirror, the type of image formed is a virtual, upright, and laterally inverted image. This means that the image appears to be behind the mirror, remains in the same orientation as the object, but is flipped horizontally. The size of the image remains the same as the object.
When light is reflected from a flat mirror, it forms a virtual image. A virtual image is an image that appears to be behind the mirror, but is not actually there. The size and orientation of the image depend on the distance of the object from the mirror and the distance of the observer from the mirror. If the object is closer to the mirror than the observer, the image will appear larger than the object and will be upright.
If the object is farther away from the mirror than the observer, the image will appear smaller than the object and will be upside down. If the object is placed at the same distance from the mirror as the observer, the image will be the same size as the object and will be laterally inverted (left and right reversed). These characteristics of flat mirror images are due to the fact that light rays reflect off the mirror at the same angle as they strike it, which causes the reflected rays to diverge as if they were coming from behind the mirror.
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velocity is derived physical quantity why
Answer:
Velocity is “how much distance you cover in a particular time.” Space and time are fundamental quantities, and meters and seconds are their base units. Velocity is a combination of a space and a time, and therefore its units — “m/s” – are “derived” from the units for space and time
Which of the following is true about science and technology?
A.
Advancements in science can lead to advancements in technology, and technological advancements can also lead to scientific advancements.
B.
Advancements in science cannot lead to advancements in technology, but technological advancements can lead to scientific advancements.
C.
Advancements in science can lead to advancements in technology, but technological advancements cannot lead to scientific advancements.
D.
Advancements in science cannot lead to advancements in technology, and technological advancements cannot lead to scientific advancements.
Answer:
1st choice is the true
cause Science and technology are Related Improvement in science is improvement in technology
Four 29-ohm resistors are connected in series to an ideal 10-volt battery. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
Answer:
Equivalent resistance of the circuit is 116 ohm.
Explanation:
Finding the equivalent resistance of the circuit. Since, 29 ohm resistors are connected in series, so
→ Equivalent resistance = R_1 + R_2 + R_3 + R_4
→ Equivalent resistance = (29 + 29 + 29 + 29) ohm
→ Equivalent resistance = 116 ohmdetermine the tension in all cables present if the suspended mass at f is 20 kg.
Without additional information or a diagram, it is not possible to provide a specific solution for this problem. The tension forces in the cables will depend on the arrangement and geometry of the system.
Without a diagram or additional information, it is difficult to provide an accurate solution to this problem. However, in general, to determine the tension in all cables present in a system with a suspended mass, we can use the principle of equilibrium.
According to the principle of equilibrium, the sum of all forces acting on an object must be zero for the object to remain stationary. In this case, the suspended mass at f is in static equilibrium, meaning that the tension forces in all cables must balance the force of gravity acting on the mass.
Let T1, T2, T3, and T4 be the tension forces in the cables. The force of gravity acting on the mass can be calculated as:
Fg = m * g
where m is the mass of the object and g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s^2).
Fg = 20 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 = 196 N
suming that the cables are arranged such that they form a closed system, the principle of equilibrium can be used to write equations for the tension forces
where ∑Fx and ∑Fy are the sums of the horizontal and vertical forces, respectively. These equations can be solved simultaneously to find the tension forces.
Without additional information or a diagram, it is not possible to provide a specific solution for this problem. The tension forces in the cables will depend on the arrangement and geometry of the system.
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Watch as the coefficients are being
placed in the equation. Is the
equation being balanced correctly?
P4010 + H2O +4H3PO4
Before
After
4
1(4) = 4
ao I
10+1
4(4) = 16
H
2
3(4) = 12.
Yes
No
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
What causes atoms to form covalent bonds?
The number of
In a covalent bond, two atoms are held together by the attraction between
covalent bonds that an atom can form depends on the number of
in the atom.
Answer:
YES the first option
Explanation:
two atom are held together
Answer:
In a covalent bond, two atoms are held together by the attraction between each atom and the shared electrons. The number of covalent bonds that an atom can form depends on the number of valence electrons in the atom.
Can you please help me with this physics question
Answer:
See the answers below
Explanation:
We can solve both problems using vector sum.
a)
Let's assume the forces that help the diver dive as positive downward, and the forces that oppose upward, as negative
\(F_{resultant}=100+30-85+900\\F_{resultant}=845[N]\)
The drag force is horizontal d this way in the horizontal direction we will only have the drag force that produces the water stream.
\(F_{drag}=50[N]\)
b)
Let's assume the forces that propel the rocket upwards as positive and forces like the weight of the rocket and other elements as negative forces.
\(F_{resultant}=960+7080-7700\\F_{resultant}=340 [kN]\)
A 2. 0-kg object is thrown towards a wall with a speed of 8. 0 m/s. The ball hits the wall. And rebounds backwards with a speed of 6. 0 m/s. What is the magnitude of the impulse experienced by the hall?
Answer:
\(28\; {\rm kg \cdot m\cdot s^{-1}}\).
Explanation:
The impulse on an object is equal to the change in momentum.
By the conservation of momentum, the total momentum of this system will stay unchanged. In other words, the sum of the change in the momentum of the wall and the projectile will be \(0\):
\(\Delta p(\text{projectile}) + \Delta p(\text{wall}) = 0\).
Rearrange to obtain:
\(\Delta p(\text{wall}) = -\Delta p(\text{projectile})\).
The change in the momentum of the projectile is:
\(\begin{aligned} & \Delta p(\text{projectile}) \\ &= m(\text{projectile}) \, \Delta v(\text{projectile}) \\ &= (2.0\; {\rm kg})\, ((8.0 - (-6.0))\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}) \\ &= 28\; {\rm kg\cdot m\cdot s^{-1}} \end{aligned}\).
The change in the momentum of the wall would then be:
\(\Delta p(\text{wall}) = -\Delta p(\text{projectile}) = -28\; {\rm kg\cdot m\cdot s^{-1}}\).
Thus, the magnitude of the impulse on the wall would be \(28\; {\rm kg\cdot m\cdot s^{-1}}\).
Question 2 (2 points)
In the eBook on page 10, the writer describes self-talk. Self-talk can be negative or
positive. Your thoughts are powerful, they affect your actions. Having negative
thoughts about yourself or situations you face will make you feel less hopeful.
Changing your negative self-talk from negative to positive is completely in your
control, but you have to make an effort to learn how to change these thoughts.
True
False
Having negative self-talk or situations you face will make you feel less hopeful. The statement is true.
The majority of us occasionally engage in negative kind of self-talk, which manifests itself in many ways. If we're not cautious, it may also lead to tremendous stress for both us and others close to us.
When your inner voice is too critical and negative, it is said to be engaging in negative self-talk. It is gloomy and emphasizes the negative. Thus, your self-esteem is damaged, and you are prevented from realising your potential. It might give you the impression that you will fail even before you begin.
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Calculate the initial oil-in-place (N) of a volumetric oil reservoir if:
A=1,600 acres, h=32 ft, Ø = 22%, Si = 20%, B= 1.23 bbISTB
Calculate the initial gas-in-place of a volumetric gas reservoir if:
A=1,320 acres, h=45 ft, Ø = 17.5%, Sw = 23%, By = 0.004276 cuft/SCF
The initial oil-in-place (N) of a volumetric oil reservoir is a critical parameter used to estimate the total amount of oil that can be recovered from the reservoir. It represents the total volume of oil contained within the reservoir at the beginning of its production life.
The initial gas-in-place (G) of a volumetric gas reservoir is a critical parameter used to estimate the total amount of gas that can be recovered from the reservoir. It represents the total volume of gas contained within the reservoir at the beginning of its production life.To calculate the initial oil-in-place and gas-in-place, we need to use certain parameters such as the area of the reservoir, the thickness of the reservoir, the porosity of the reservoir, the initial oil or water saturation, and the formation volume factor. The formulas used to calculate the initial oil-in-place and gas-in-place are different, and the parameters used in each formula are specific to either an oil or gas reservoir.
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Simplifying the given expressions below,which of the following will give a negative result?
A.-19 + 0
B.-8 (-12)
C.26 -4
D.-10 - (-15)
Answer:
a.-19
b.-20
c.22
d.5
Explanation:
............just need a thanks....
what is the most effective way to convert atms to pascals
Answer:
1 Atm (atmospheric pressure) is equal to 101325 pascal (Pa). To convert atm to pascal, multiply the atm value by 101325. atm to pascal formula. Pa = atm * 101325.
Explanation:
steam that is produced from a boiling pool of water will initially be saturated steam.
T/F
True. Steam that is produced from a boiling pool of water will initially be saturated steam.
Saturated steam is a state where the steam and liquid water coexist in equilibrium at a given temperature and pressure. When water is heated, it undergoes a phase transition from liquid to vapor. At the boiling point of water, the temperature and pressure conditions are such that the liquid water converts into steam.
During the boiling process, the heat supplied to the water causes its temperature to rise until it reaches the boiling point. At this point, further heat input does not cause a temperature increase but instead converts the liquid water into steam. The steam produced at the boiling point is known as saturated steam.
Saturated steam contains the maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a given temperature and pressure. It is in equilibrium with liquid water, and any further addition or removal of heat will result in a change in the steam's quality or condition (e.g., superheated steam or wet steam).
Therefore, initially, the steam produced from a boiling pool of water will be saturated steam.
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If the maximum moment of force on a door is 10 Nm by an applied force of 2.25 N, then the distance of handle
Answer:
d = 4.44 m
Explanation:
Given that,
The moment of force on a door = 10 N-m
The applied force, F = 2.25 N
We need to find the distance of the handle. The moment of force is given by :
\(\tau=F\times r\)
Where
r is the distance of the handle.
\(r=\dfrac{\tau}{F}\\\\r=\dfrac{10}{2.25}\\\\r=4.44\ m\)
So, the required distance is equal to 4.44 m.
At which type of plate boundary did the Himalayas form?
A.
Divergent
B.
Convergent
C.
Transform
A mass of 0.40 kg is attached to a spring and set into oscillation on a horizontal frictionless surface. The simple harmonic motion of the mass is described by x(t) = (0.20 m)cos[(20 rad/s)t]. Determine the following.
(a) amplitude of oscillation for the oscillating mass
m
(b) force constant for the spring
N/m
(c) position of the mass after it has been oscillating for one half a period
m
(d) position of the mass one-third of a period after it has been released
m
(e) time it takes the mass to get to the position x = ?0.10 m after it has been released
A)The amplitude of oscillation for the mass is 0.20 m.
B)The force constant for the spring is 160 N/m.
C) the position of the mass after it has been oscillating for one half a period is x = 0.20 m.
D)The position of the mass one third of a period after it has been released is 0.15 m.
E) The position of the mass after it has been oscillating for one half a period is x = 0.20 m.
(a) The amplitude of oscillation is given by the coefficient of the cosine function in the displacement equation, which is 0.20 m. Therefore, the amplitude of oscillation for the mass is 0.20 m.
(b) The equation of simple harmonic motion for a mass attached to a spring is given by x(t) = Acos(ωt), where A is the amplitude of oscillation, ω is the angular frequency, and x(t) is the displacement of the mass at time t. Comparing this to the given displacement equation, we can see that ω = 20 rad/s. The force constant of the spring, k, is related to the angular frequency by the equation k = mω^2, where m is the mass attached to the spring. Substituting the given values, we get:
k = (0.40 kg)(20 rad/s)^2 = 160 N/m
Therefore, the force constant for the spring is 160 N/m.
(c) One half period of oscillation corresponds to a time interval of T/2, where T is the period of oscillation. The period of oscillation is given by T = 2π/ω, where ω is the angular frequency. Substituting the given value of ω, we get:
T = 2π/20 rad/s = 0.314 s
Therefore, one half period corresponds to a time interval of T/2 = 0.157 s. At the end of this time interval, the mass has completed half a cycle of motion and returns to its initial position. Therefore, the position of the mass after it has been oscillating for one half a period is x = 0.20 m.
(d) One third of a period of oscillation corresponds to a time interval of T/3 = (2/3)π/ω. Substituting the given value of ω, we get:
T/3 = (2/3)π/20 rad/s = 0.209 s
To find the position of the mass one third of a period after it has been released, we need to evaluate the displacement equation at t = T/3. Substituting the given values, we get:
x(T/3) = (0.20 m)cos[(20 rad/s)(0.209 s)] = 0.15 m
Therefore, the position of the mass one third of a period after it has been released is 0.15 m.
(e) To find the time it takes the mass to get to the position x = -0.10 m after it has been released, we need to solve the displacement equation for t when x = -0.10 m. Substituting the given values, we get:
-0.10 m = (0.20 m)cos[(20 rad/s)t]
Dividing both sides by 0.20 m and taking the inverse cosine of both sides, we get:
cos^-1(-0.5) = (20 rad/s)t
Using a calculator, we find that cos^-1(-0.5) = 2.094 radians. Substituting this value and the given value of ω, we get:
2.094 rad = (20 rad/s)t
Solving for t, we get:
t = 0.105 s
Therefore, it takes the mass 0.105 s to get to the position x = -0.10 m after it has been released.
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The potential difference is changed to 0.30V.
The current in the lamp is now 0.13 A.
The lamp is switched on for 35 s.
Calculate the energy that is transferred in this time.
Select an equation from the list of equations at the end of this paper.
The energy that is transferred in this time is E = 1.365 J.
Equation :To calculate Charge using formula,
Q = I x t
Q = 0.13A x 35 s
Q = 4.55 C
To calculate energy transferred,
E = Q x V
where,
Q is charge
V is potential difference
So by given values,
E = 4.55 x 0.30
E = 1.365 J
Energy :In order to perform work and to produce heat and light, energy must be transferred to a body or to a physical system. Energy is a quantitative property. Energy is a conserved resource; according to the law of conservation of energy, energy can only be transformed from one form to another and cannot be created or destroyed.
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what is the most commmon injury in the United states
the visible surface of the sun is composed of solid matter.
a. true
b. false
This statement is FALSE, the visible surface of the sun is composed of solid matter.
The sun is made totally out of plasma, the fourth nation of depending after gasoline, liquid, and strong, and the most energetic. As you could consider, the sun is tremendously hot. It varies among nine,900-27,000,000°F in temperature among the “surface” (the outer limb of its environment where it becomes obvious to light as opposed to opaque), and the middle.
Unlike the gasoline massive planets, which probably have a strong middle, the sun is made nearly out of hydrogen and helium, the lightest of all the elements, and at no point, internal should either of those exist as a solid at the one’s temperatures, despite the awesome pressures that exist in the solar. It’s plasma all the way down, even at the center where the density is ten instances that of gold.
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Which of the following are considered alternative sources of energy? (Select three) a. geothermal power h wind power wered Coal-based power d. nuclear power e. gas power The most controversial form of alternative energy is a. wind power b. biofuels geothermal power d. nuclear power e. hydropower
Alternative sources of energy among the given options are wind power, geothermal power, and nuclear power
Alternative sources of energy are those that can be used as an alternative to traditional fossil fuels like coal, oil, and gas. They are typically more sustainable and have a lower environmental impact.
From the given options, the following are considered alternative sources of energy:
1. Wind power: Wind power harnesses the energy from the wind to generate electricity. Wind turbines capture the kinetic energy of the wind and convert it into electrical energy. This is a renewable source of energy that does not produce greenhouse gas emissions.
2. Geothermal power: Geothermal power utilizes the heat from the Earth's core to generate electricity. This energy is extracted by tapping into hot water or steam reservoirs beneath the surface. Geothermal energy is considered a clean and renewable source of power.
3. Nuclear power: Although controversial, nuclear power is considered an alternative source of energy. It involves the process of nuclear fission, where the energy released from splitting atoms is used to generate electricity. Nuclear power plants do not emit greenhouse gases during operation, but concerns regarding safety and waste disposal exist.
The most controversial form of alternative energy among the given options is nuclear power. While it does not emit greenhouse gases during operation, there are concerns about the potential risks associated with accidents and the disposal of radioactive waste.
It's important to note that other alternative sources of energy exist, such as solar power, hydropower, and biomass energy. These sources also play a significant role in reducing reliance on fossil fuels and mitigating climate change.
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Geothermal Power, Wind Power, and Nuclear Power are alternative sources of energy. They are sustainable, clean, and are replenished naturally. However, Nuclear Power, while efficient, is controversial due to the risks involved.
Explanation:The three alternative sources of energy from the given options could be: a. Geothermal Power, b. Wind power, and d. Nuclear Power. Alternative energy sources are those that are replenished by ongoing natural processes over human timescales as they provide energy in a clean and sustainable way. These alternatives do not rely on fossil fuels and hence, are environment-friendly and can help mitigate issues related to carbon emission and global warming.
Among these, the most controversial form of alternative energy could be considered d. Nuclear Power. While it is a powerful and efficient source of energy, it has serious associated risks including radioactive waste disposal, environmental damage due to accidents, and potential misuse of nuclear technology.
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PLEASE HELP!! ILL MARK BRAINLYEST!!!
The process of a neutron splitting a nucleus into two parts is called _____.
A. fission
B. atomic
C. fusion