Select the correct answer.
From which language do most medical terms originate?

A.
German
B.
Chinese
C.
English
D.
Greek

Answers

Answer 1
the answer is latin or greek language.
Answer 2

Latin
The basis for medical terminology, however, has remained the same. The majority of medical terms are based in the Latin or Greek language.

Related Questions

Select all that apply. What terms describe a type of receptor that causes enzyme activation?
Group of answer choices
a. Nicotinic
b. Metabotropic
c. Adrenergic
d. Ionotropic
e. Muscarinic

Answers

The terms that describe a type of receptor that causes enzyme activation are Metabotropic and Adrenergic. The correct answers are options b and c.

Metabotropic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptor that initiates a signaling cascade when activated, leading to the activation of intracellular enzymes. Adrenergic receptors, on the other hand, are a type of metabotropic receptor that responds to the neurotransmitter adrenaline (epinephrine) and activates intracellular enzymes through G protein signaling.

Nicotinic and ionotropic receptors, on the other hand, are ligand-gated ion channels that allow ions to flow through the membrane when activated. Muscarinic receptors are also metabotropic receptors, but they primarily activate intracellular signaling pathways involving second messengers rather than directly activating enzymes.

Therefore, options b and c are correct.

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The terms that describe a type of receptor that causes enzyme activation are:  Metabotropic and . Muscarinic

Metabotropic receptors are G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) that indirectly regulate the opening or closing of ion channels through the activation of enzymes, such as adenylate cyclase or phospholipase C. These enzymes produce secondary messengers that modulate ion channel activity, ultimately leading to changes in membrane potential and cellular responses.

Muscarinic receptors are a subtype of metabotropic receptors that respond to the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. They are involved in a variety of physiological functions, including regulation of heart rate, smooth muscle contraction, and modulation of neuronal activity in the central nervous system. Muscarinic receptors activate enzymes through G-proteins, which then regulate ion channel function and cellular responses.

In contrast, nicotinic (a) and ionotropic (d) receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, meaning they directly allow ions to pass through the membrane upon binding of a specific neurotransmitter, without the involvement of enzymes. Adrenergic (c) receptors are a subclass of metabotropic receptors that respond to adrenaline and noradrenaline, but they were not specifically asked in the context of enzyme activation.

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Dr. Baer wanted to do a survey on students and drug use. Which of the following is a random sample?

A. Every Fifth student on the School roll sheet
B. Two of the honors classes and two of the average classes
C. Students who volunteered
D. All of these are correct

Answers

A because there is no way to expect it, c I believe would be incorrect because if they volunteered then they would not be taking drugs.

Answer:

A. Every Fifth student on the School roll sheetExplanation:I just took the test

marie has acne, and she has heard that accutane or retinoic acid will relieve some of her symptoms. what would you tell marie about this practice?

Answers

It is true that both Accutane and retinoic acid can be effective treatments for acne. However, it is important to understand the potential risks and side effects associated with these medications.

Accutane is a powerful drug that is typically reserved for severe cases of acne that have not responded to other treatments. It can cause a range of side effects, including dry skin, nosebleeds, and joint pain. More serious side effects can include liver damage, depression, and birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Retinoic acid, a topical medication, can also cause skin irritation and sensitivity to sunlight.

It is important to speak with your healthcare provider before starting any new medication for your acne. They can help you weigh the potential benefits and risks and determine the best course of treatment for your individual needs. Additionally, they can monitor your progress and adjust your treatment plan as needed.

In addition to medication, there are many other ways to manage acne symptoms. These include maintaining a healthy diet, practicing good skincare habits, and managing stress levels. Your healthcare provider can provide guidance on these lifestyle factors as well.

I hope this information helps you make an informed decision about treating your acne. Remember, it is always important to prioritize your health and safety when considering any new medication or treatment.

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Select the term that correctly labels the arrows on
the image.
A
B
medial
superior
proximal

Select the term that correctly labels the arrows onthe image.ABmedialsuperiorproximal

Answers

A is superior and B is proximal

What is the superior part of the body?

The superior part of the body is toward the upper part or head of the body.

Some superior parts of the body are the head, neck, throat, hands, chest, etc.

The arrow pointing upwards explains the superior part of the body.

What is the proximal part of the body?

The proximal part of the body refers to a part of the body that is closer to the center of the body than another part.

From the figure, the arrow pointing downwards explains that the knee is proximal to the toes.

Hence, A is the superior part and B is the proximal part.

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Arrow A represents the superior part of the body, while arrow B represents the proximal part of the body.

What is the difference between the superior and proximal part of the body?

The major differences between both of these body parts are given below:

The superior body part represents the upper portion of the body from chest to head. While the proximal part of the body illustrates the lower part of the body from the central position.

Therefore, arrow A represents the superior part of the body, while arrow B represents the proximal part of the body.

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Linezolid 600 mg IV once a day is ordered for a patient. The medication should infuse over 45 minutes. Using tubing with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL, how many drops per minute should the linezolid be infused

Answers

The correct answer is (300x 10 )/ 60min = 50

what is Linezolid 600 ?

The oxazolidinone antibiotic linezolid is effective against Gram-positive bacteria such as glycopeptide-resistant enterococci and meticillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). With continued use of the medication or if the dose is lower than advised, resistance to linezolid may emerge. For mixed infections that also contain Gram-negative organisms, linezolid must be administered in conjunction with other antibacterials because it is ineffective against common Gram-negative pathogens.

When other antibacterials, such as a glycopetide like vancomycin, cannot be utilised, such as in the case of pneumonia (initiated under specialist supervision),

Gram-positive bacterial infections that cause complicated skin and soft tissue infections when other antibacterials are ineffective (initiated under specialist supervision)

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What are the limitations of presumptive tests?

Answers

What are its limitations? A presumptive test presumes the presence of the questioned substance. ... False positive is possible--meaning that the test result is positive but the substance is not present.

fill in the blank. a tourist travels to the himalayas. at first, she has difficulty hiking due to shortness of breath, but after a week, her performance has improved. this is most likely an example of___to lower partial pressure of oxygen.

Answers

This is most likely an example of acclimatization to lower partial pressure of oxygen.

What is lower oxygen level?

The Himalayas are high-altitude regions where the air pressure is lower, and hence the concentration of oxygen in the air is also lower compared to sea-level areas. This can cause shortness of breath and other symptoms of altitude sickness in people who are not accustomed to such conditions. However, over time, the body can adapt to the lower oxygen concentration by increasing the production of red blood cells, which carry oxygen to the tissues, and by improving the efficiency of oxygen uptake and utilization in the cells. This process is called acclimatization, and it typically takes several days to weeks to occur.

Here,

In the given example, the tourist's improved performance after a week of hiking in the Himalayas suggests that her body has undergone acclimatization to the lower oxygen concentration, allowing her to breathe more easily and perform better in the high-altitude environment.

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A client began taking a daily dose of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) several years ago to prevent platelet aggregation following a myocardial infarction(MI). Which dose is the client most likely taking on a daily bases

Answers

The client is most likely taking a daily dose of 81 mg of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) on a regular basis.

For the prevention of platelet aggregation following a myocardial infarction (MI), a low dose of aspirin is commonly prescribed. The recommended dose for this purpose is typically 81 mg per day. This lower dose of aspirin is often referred to as "low-dose" or "baby" aspirin. It provides antiplatelet effects to help prevent the formation of blood clots while reducing the risk of side effects associated with higher doses. It's important for individuals taking aspirin for preventive purposes to follow their healthcare provider's instructions regarding dosage and duration, as the appropriate dose may vary based on individual factors and medical history.

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EXPLAIN THE KEY STRENGTHS AND LIMITATIONS OF THE PSYCHIATRIC CLASSIFICATION SYSTEM

Answers

Answer:

the right uses and medications is used to control the illnesses also behaviours that are different to normal are noticed and seen to.

a client informs the nurse of a problem with acid indigestion. the client notes taking large amounts of calcium carbonate antacids daily but still has no relief. the client consumes about 1 bottle of 100 antacids in 4 days. which blood gas result does the nurse anticipate?

Answers

PH 7.6 is the  blood gas result the nurse can anticipate. A good balance of acidity and alkalinity is something that the human body is designed to automatically maintain.

Any malfunctioning in the organs leads to acid - base imbalance acidosis and alkalosis. A blood pH of less than 7.35 or very acidic blood is referred to as acidosis. Alkalosis is defined as having overly basic blood, or blood with a pH higher than 7.45.  Acidosis may be respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis. Alkalosis may be respiratory and metabolic acidosis.

The following are some signs of a pH imbalance: tingling, cramping in the muscles, weakness, convulsions, and changes in mental status, ranging from bewilderment to comatose . Both acidosis and alkalosis need prompt medical intervention from a qualified healthcare provider.

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which surgery do you think would have the most profound effect on digestion
-removal of the stomach (gastrectomy)
-removal of the pancreas (pancreatectomy)
-removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy)​

Answers

Answer:

Removal of the pancreas would have the most severe effects on absorption because most chemical digestion occurs in the small intestine. Absorption requires the action of pancreatic enzymes, making the pancreas the most important.

Hope this helps! :))

Explanation:

10. How much 6% solution can you make by diluting 350 mL of a 15% solution?

Answers

Answer:

875 ml

Explanation:

A client is prescribed digitalis medication. Which condition should the nurse closely monitor when caring for the client?
a) Vasculitis
b) nausea and vomiting
c) Flexion contractures
d) Enlargement of joints

Answers

The nurse should be monitoring symptoms like nausea and vomiting when caring for the client on Digitalis medication. The correct option is b) Nausea and vomiting.

What is digitalis?

Digitalis or Digoxin is a drug that is used to control and treat heart failure, arrhythmias, and abortion. It belongs to the cardiac glycoside class of drugs.

Digitalis toxicity is a major risk with digoxin medication. Toxic symptoms include anorexia, vomiting, nausea, visual abnormalities, disorientation, and bradycardia. The serum potassium level is checked since digoxin's action is amplified in the presence of hypokalemia.

Therefore, option B is correct.

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Your team is resuscitating a newborn at birth. The heart rate is low and the baby has poor perfusion. Which is the preferred method to assess the heart rate?
A. Cardiac monitor
B. Pulse oximeter
C. CO2 detector
D. Direct Auscultation

Answers

A. Cardiac monitor is the preferred method to assess the heart rate of a newborn who is being resuscitated at birth with poor perfusion.

A cardiac monitor provides continuous and real-time monitoring of the newborn's heart rate. It allows healthcare providers to observe the electrical activity of the heart and accurately determine the heart rate. This information is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of resuscitation efforts and making appropriate interventions. While other methods, such as pulse oximetry (B), CO2 detection (C), or direct auscultation (D), can provide additional information about the newborn's condition, they are not the primary methods used to assess the heart rate during resuscitation.

Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation, CO2 detection helps assess ventilation, and direct auscultation involves listening to the heart sounds using a stethoscope. These methods may be used in conjunction with the cardiac monitor but do not provide the same level of accuracy and continuous monitoring of the heart rate.

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C2
Describe the relevant values, principles or standards that relate to communication

Answers

Answer:

Communication is the exchange or transmission of information that can take place in different ways (verbal, non-verbal and paraverbal) and in different ways (speaking, writing), now also by way of computer-mediated communication.  Information in this context is a comprehensive term for knowledge, insight, experience or empathy.

In addition to its original meaning as a social act, the word communication is also used for other processes in different contexts. The increasing use of communication technology, for example, meant that technical aspects were also included in the term communication. Communication is therefore also understood to mean “data transmission”, “mutual control” and, in simple cases, “connection” of devices; in other situations, communication is related to institutions or companies and their target groups. Then no longer living beings, but instead organized units (or "systems") are viewed as communicators.

how do you cure amnesia

Answers

Answer: By going to sleep

steoporosis and related low bone mass affect many adults in North America, especially older women. One-third of all women experience fractures because of this disease, amounting to about 2 million bone fractures per year. Osteoporosis is a disease you can do something about. Some risk factors cannot be changed, but others, such as poor calcium intake, can. Is this true for you

Answers

Answer: This is TRUE for me. Osteoporosis is a preventable disease.

Explanation:

In this condition, bone density ( the amount of bone tissue) is reduced because it's deposition does not keep pace with resorption. Although the bone is adequately mineralised, it is fragile and microscopically abnormal, with loss of internal structure.

Peak bone mass occurs around 35 years and then gradually declines in both sexes. Lowered oestrogen levels after the menopause are associated with a period of accelerated bone loss in women. Thereafter bone density in women is less than in men for any given age. That is why in North America, one-third of all women experience fractures because of this disease, amounting to about 2 million bone fractures per year.

Common features of osteoporosis are:

--> skeletal deformity: gradual loss of height with age, caused by compression of vertebrae.

--> bone pain

--> fractures: especially of the hip ( neck of femur), wrist and vertebrae.

It is TRUE for me that some risk factors can't be changed ( which is the low oestrogen levels that occur after menopause in women) but others, such as poor calcium intake, can.

Exercise and Calcium intake during childhood and adolescence are important in determining eventual bone mass of an individual and in preventing risk of osteoporosis in later life.

How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

set as brainliest

Match each of the characteristics/descriptions listed below to the appropriate phylum/phyla. Some characteristics will match with more than one phylum. All the options will be used at least once.
Characteristics/Descriptions:
Protostome
Triploblastic
Coelom
Molts when grows
No circulatory system
Diploblastic
Deuterostome
Some members are marine
Phylum/Phyla:
Arthropoda
Echinodermata
Ctenophora

Answers

The phylum/phyla that match the given characteristics and descriptions are Arthropoda and Echinodermata.

Which phylum/phyla match the given characteristics and descriptions?

The characteristics/descriptions can be matched with the following phylum/phyla:

Protostome: ArthropodaTriploblastic: Arthropoda, EchinodermataCoelom: Arthropoda, Echinodermata Molts when grows: ArthropodaNo circulatory system: Echinodermata Diploblastic: Echinodermata Deuterostome: EchinodermataSome members are marine: Arthropoda, Echinodermata

Arthropoda and Echinodermata are the phyla that match the given characteristics/descriptions. Arthropoda includes organisms like insects, spiders, and crustaceans, while Echinodermata includes organisms like starfish and sea urchins.

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Does having the Cov!d vaccine make it safe to be out in the public without the risk of getting the virus?

Answers

Answer:

short answer.....no

Explanation:

does not prevent contracting the virus....actually reduces severity of symptoms

Although being completely vaccinated against cov!d does make it much safer to be out in public, there is still a tiny chance that you could still catch the virus, but like I said it is a very small chance. I would still recommend getting vaccinated though.
Have a nice day/night!

While common sense is helpful in explaining certain events, unfortunately it does not help us:

Answers

We can not apply common sense in predicting the future events. Option A

What is common sense?

The term common sense has to do with the application of simple principles of reasoning to solve everyday problems. Common sense is available to every sane individual to use in daily life.

However, we can not apply common sense in predicting the future events.

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The problem with common sense is that it is "after the fact." In other words, common sense does not help us:

predict the future.

observe phenomena.

discern relationships.

interpret findings.

A form of arthritis that first affects the spine and adjacent structures and, as it progresses, causes a forward bend of the spine is Group of answer choices myasthenia gravis. osteoporosis. rheumatoid arthritis. ankylosing spondylitis

Answers

A form of arthritis that first affects the spine and adjacent structures and, as it progresses, causes a forward bend of the spine is ankylosing spondylitis.

Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. It belongs to a group of conditions known as spondyloarthropathies. In the early stages, it typically presents with symptoms such as lower back pain and stiffness that worsen with rest and improve with movement. Over time, the inflammation can lead to fusion of the spinal vertebrae, resulting in a forward bend of the spine, called kyphosis or "stooped posture."

While other conditions such as osteoporosis and rheumatoid arthritis can also affect the spine, ankylosing spondylitis is specifically characterized by the progressive involvement of the spine and the development of spinal deformities.

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2. Every resident eats the same meal prepared the same way.
True
False

Answers

False, there are many factors that affect the meal plan of a resident. Ex: religion or health issues

when the chest x-ray for a client who has arrived at the emergency department with chest trauma shows multiple fractured ribs, which action will the nurse take next

Answers

Check for paradoxical movement of the chest wall.

Images of your heart, lungs, circulation arteries, passageways, and the bones in your spine and chest are created by chest X-rays. When the lungs remain clear and strong, they should seem dark, similar to how air appears on an X-ray—not quite black.

Because there is tissue in the lungs, but still pretty dark. It's important to take note if the lungs appear to have areas of density within them. Numerous conditions affecting the lower lung, such as lung infections, are associated with chronic coughing.

An abnormal lung x-ray can reveal some of them, including lung infections. Asthma is one of the common causes of lungs, nevertheless. Depending on the form of cancer or how far has gone, there are many treatment options.

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You see that one of the residents needs much more help eating than normal. What should you do after offering to assist the resident?
Tell your supervisor that the resident requires more help.
Call the resident’s family and let them know the resident needs more help.
You are not required to do anything beyond assisting the resident with eating.
Nothing Selected

Answers

Hii!!! I believe that the answer might be A. Tell your supervisor that the resident requires more help. (:

difference between an academic medical center and a community hospital

Answers

Answer:

First of all, A CMC is a non-academic provider such as a community hospital. Compared to AMCs, CMCs are not as involved in graduate medical education, nor in federally funded research. Their patient populations also look different, with a higher share of privately insured individuals, and their staff members may be more generalist.

Explanation:

An academic medical center and a community hospital differ in several key aspects:

Mission and Purpose:

An academic medical center is primarily focused on medical education, research, and the advancement of medical knowledge. It is affiliated with a university or medical school and often plays a significant role in training healthcare professionals, conducting research studies, and providing specialized and complex medical care. In contrast, a community hospital's primary focus is on providing healthcare services to the local community, including general medical care, emergency services, and routine procedures.

Medical Education and Research: Academic medical centers serve as teaching hospitals and are closely associated with medical schools or universities. They provide clinical training opportunities for medical students, residents, and fellows, fostering a collaborative environment for medical education and research.

Specialized Services: Academic medical centers often offer a broader range of specialized and tertiary care services. They have specialized departments and centers of excellence, providing advanced treatments, specialized surgeries, and access to cutting-edge technologies. \

Patient Population: Academic medical centers often serve a more diverse and complex patient population. They attract patients seeking specialized care, those with complex medical conditions, and individuals participating in clinical trials or research studies.

Resources and Expertise: Academic medical centers generally have access to greater resources, including research funding, advanced technologies, and highly specialized medical professionals.

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10. Patient's wt: 66 lb Medication order: 0.8 mg/kg Stock medication: 40 mg/2 mL. How many mL will
you give?
11. Patient's wt: 98 lb Medication order: 0.2 mg/kg Stock medication: 20 mg/mL. How many mL will you
give?
12. Patient's wt: 68 lb Medication order: 0.6 mg/kg Stock medication: 50 mg/mL. How many mL will you
give?

Answers

Answer:number Patient's weight: 63 lb. Medication order: 0.5 mg/kg. Stock medication: 25 mg/2mL. that is number 10.  Order: Dopamine 20 mcg/Kg/minute. The bag is labeled Dopamine 100 mg/50 ml. The patient weighs 88 lbs this is number 11.

Explain the difference between a genotype and phenotype.

Answers

The sum of an organism's observable characteristics is their phenotype. A key difference between phenotype and genotype is that, whilst genotype is inherited from an organism's parents, the phenotype is not. Whilst a phenotype is influenced the genotype, genotype does not equal phenotype.

3.What adjustments to afferent or efferent radius can be made to compensate for the effect of reduced blood pressure on GFR

Answers

Answer:

Increasing the afferent radius or decreasing the efferent would compensate for lowered blood pressure. Increasing the afferent radius had a greater effect than decreasing the efferent radius because there was a greater increase in glomerular pressure.

the four steps for testing a change are:

Answers

The Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle is an acronym for testing a change by organizing it, putting it into practice, evaluating the outcomes, and taking action based on what is discovered.

An improvement project includes four phases: planning, preparation, execution, and closeout. In order to improve teamwork and help organizations run more efficiently, researcher Bruce Wayne Tuckman published "Tuckman's Stages" in 1965.It discussed the four developmental phases that all teams experience throughout time: training, forming, norming, and performing. Write out a work plan, share anecdotes to illustrate why the QI project is personally relevant to people, and create a team roster so everyone is aware of who is on the team and how to contact one another.

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