It is important to assess and record the type, amount, color and odor of the exudate to identify changes. Too much exudate can lead to maceration and destruction of the skin, while too little exudate can lead to dryness of the wound bed.
Infected wounds may become sticky and foul-smelling. Hydrocolloid dressings can be used for burns, leaky wounds, necrotic wounds, pressure sores, and venous ulcers. These are non-breathable bandages that are sticky and do not require tape. The ideal dressing should keep the wound moist, not macerate, inhibit bacterial overgrowth, minimize odor, and be comfortable to wear. To optimize wound dressing selection, wounds should be examined frequently. Today there are many types of bandages and even techniques for treating wounds.
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Describe why you should use professional language and photos on your LinkedIn profile
This builds an illusion (or just builds) credibility. People are more likely to trust and work with more professional looking people. If one were to wear a t-shirt that said "SHREK" on it, and use language like they were writing a text message, it looks as if that person was like a child, had no work ethic, and little experience and credibility. However, if one dresses and speaks more professionally, it seems that they will have a better work ethic, and are more experienced and therefore better for the job.
Answer:
When utilizing LinkedIn it is vital that professional language and imagery are used because you are marketing yourself to potential employers. The content added to your profile should be equal to that in which you would put on a resume or what you would talk about in an interview.
Darla Huntley, RMA, works in a pulmonology practice. She has been instructed to schedule Betty Robinson for a spirometry within one week. Ms. Robinson has never had one before. After the procedure is scheduled, what information should Darla provide Ms. Robinson to ensure that she is prepared on the day of her test? Under what health-related circumstances would Darla need to reschedule the test for Ms. Robinson? How many maneuvers must be completed for Ms. Robinson's PFT to be considered successful on the day of her testing?
Answer:
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that spirometry is a simple test for figuring out how well the lungs work. During the test, the patient will be asked to take a deep breath and then blow as hard as they can into a mouthpiece connected to a spirometer. The spirometer will measure how much air the patient can blow out of their lungs and how fast they can do it.
Advice on medication: Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that she shouldn't use any bronchodilator inhalers, like albuterol, for four to six hours before the test.
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson when to expect her at the test and how long the test is likely to last.
Wear clothes that are comfortable. Darla should tell Ms. Robinson to wear clothes that are comfortable and won't make it hard for her to breathe.
Darla might have to reschedule Ms. Robinson's test if something goes wrong with her health. For example, if Ms. Robinson has recently had chest surgery, a heart attack, or a stroke, Darla may need to reschedule the test to avoid any possible health risks.
For Ms. Robinson's spirometry test to be successful, she must do at least three things that give acceptable and repeatable results. If Ms. Robinson can't do three maneuvers, Darla may have to reschedule the test to make sure the results are correct.
Major source:
American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society. (2005). ATS/ERS statement on respiratory muscle testing. American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 171(8), 866-878. doi: 10.1164/rccm.200401-044STin abdominal disorders, the location of "referred" pain felt by the patient is usually
In abdominal disorders, the location of "referred" pain felt by the patient is usually in the back, rather than in the area of the abdomen that is causing the problem.
Referred pain occurs when pain is felt in one part of the body due to a problem in another part of the body. In the case of abdominal disorders, pain may originate in the stomach, intestines, or other organs in the abdominal cavity, but it can be felt in other parts of the body, such as the back, chest, or shoulders.
This is because the nerves that transmit pain signals from the abdominal organs also innervate the muscles and other tissues in the back and other parts of the body. It is important for healthcare providers to assess the location of pain in patients with abdominal disorders in order to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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Correct Question:
In abdominal disorders, the location of "referred" pain felt by the patient is usually characterized by What?
how can a caregiver alleviate an newborn infant's discomfort caused by swallowing air during a feeding
A caregiver can alleviate a newborn infant's discomfort caused by swallowing air during a feeding by practicing proper feeding techniques.
This includes ensuring the baby is positioned correctly during feeding, such as keeping them upright and their head higher than their stomach. Additionally, the caregiver can try burping the baby frequently during and after the feeding to release any trapped air.
Using slow and steady feeding techniques, as well as properly pacing the feeding, can also help reduce the amount of air the baby swallows. Lastly, using specialized bottles or nipples designed to reduce the amount of air swallowed can be helpful as well.
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A system used to organize the many types of cancer, based on where the cancer first course is called the _______v
Please Help Me!!!!!!
Answer:
it's B because it's the correct answer
all of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for hypoglycemia. The correct answer is option a.
Air polishing is a dental procedure that uses a jet of air, water, and abrasive particles to remove stains and plaque from the teeth.
While it is generally safe and effective, there are certain situations or systemic conditions where air polishing may not be recommended.
Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not directly related to the safety or suitability of air polishing.
Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood glucose levels, and it primarily affects the body's energy metabolism.
It does not have a direct impact on the respiratory system, lung function, or the risk of infection.
On the other hand, conditions such as emphysema, active tuberculosis, and asthma can be contraindications for air polishing.
Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that affects the air sacs in the lungs, impairing breathing and increasing the risk of lung complications.
Active tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs, and air polishing may increase the risk of spreading the infection.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and increased sensitivity, and the use of air polishing may trigger asthma symptoms or cause respiratory distress in some individuals.
So, the correct answer is option a. Hypoglycemia.
The complete question is -
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Emphysema
c. Active tuberculosis
d. Asthma
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The deepest part of the Nephron Loop is determined as the
The deepest part of the nephron loop is determined as the?
a.Site of blood filtration.
b.Region of highest interstitial osmolarity (solute concentration)
c.Region that reabsorbs water in response to ADH; final adjustments to water and (solute) of tubular fluid
d.Region that NaCl flows out but not water.
Answer:
collecting points po
need ko po Kasi
Wala na po akong points para magtanong
sorry ok talaga
hope you understand
The deepest part of the Nephron Loop is determined as the Region that reabsorbs water in response to ADH; final adjustments to water and (solute) of tubular fluid. (Option c)
The Nephron Loop, also known as the Loop of Henle, is a crucial part of the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering and processing blood to form urine. The deepest part of the Nephron Loop, called the "ascending limb," is involved in reabsorbing water and solutes from the tubular fluid back into the bloodstream.
In this region, water is reabsorbed passively along with sodium and chloride ions in response to the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. The ascending limb plays a significant role in creating a concentration gradient in the surrounding interstitial fluid, establishing the osmotic gradient necessary for the reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts later in the nephron.
Option (c) correctly describes the functions of the deepest part of the Nephron Loop, making it the most appropriate choice among the given options.
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Un niño que ha enfermado de paperas o varicela, no desarrollará estas enfermedades en una segunda oportunidad, porque: I.- la piel, mucosas y lágrimas impiden el ingreso de los microbios. II.- en el primer contacto adquirió anticuerpos. III.- interviene la inmunidad Adaptativa, la cual presenta "memoria" IV.- su sistema defensivo está preparado frente a una segunda exposición
Answer:
Las respuestas II, III y IV son correctas
Explanation:
La papera, también conocida como parotiditis, es una enfermedad vírica altamente contagiosa causada por un virus de la familia Paramyxoviridae, la cual se desarrolla principalmente en las glándulas parótidas situadas a ambos lados de la mandíbula. La inmunidad a esta enfermedad puede ser lograda a partir de la aplicación de la vacuna triple viral, cuyo nombre se debe a que esta vacuna también permite adquirir inmunidad contra los virus del sarampión y la rubéola. Por otra parte, la varicela es también una enfermedad muy contagiosa que se presenta generalmente en niños, la cual es causada por el herpesvirus de varicela-zoster. Esta enfermedad se caracteriza por la presencia de erupciones rojas en la piel que causan picazón, lo cual a su vez genera lesiones cutáneas. Tanto la varicela como la papera sólo se producen una vez ya que una vez contagiado el organismo adquiere inmunidad frente a estos virus a través de un mecanismo adaptativo en el cual linajes específicos de linfocitos B capaces de secretar anticuerpos específicos contra ambos virus proliferan rápidamente a través de un proceso conocido como expansión monoclonal, con lo cual el sistema inmune adquiere memoria inmunológica.
The nurse is caring for a patient whose recent health history includes an altered LOC. What should be the nurse's first action when assessing this patient?
When caring for a patient with an altered level of consciousness (LOC), the nurse's first action should be to ensure the patient's safety.
Ensuring the patient's safety is of utmost importance in this situation. The nurse should assess the immediate environment for any potential hazards or risks to the patient. This includes checking for obstacles, removing any harmful objects, and ensuring that the patient is in a stable position to prevent falls or injuries.
Once the nurse has ensured the patient's safety, a comprehensive assessment of the patient's level of consciousness should be conducted. This may include assessing the patient's responsiveness, orientation to person, place, and time, motor responses, and vital signs. It is important to gather as much information as possible to determine the cause of the altered LOC and guide further interventions or medical management.
In addition to the initial assessment, the nurse should also consider other factors such as the patient's medical history, medications, and any recent changes in their health status. Prompt communication with the healthcare team is essential to ensure appropriate interventions and management for the patient.
By prioritizing the patient's safety and conducting a thorough assessment, the nurse can provide timely and appropriate care for a patient with an altered LOC.
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which of the following compounds would be required to be prepared in a biological safety cabinet (BSC)
A. Pantoprazole IV
B. Ranitidine IV
C. Methotrexate IV
D. Insulin IV
Given what we know, of the options listed, Methotrexate IV is the compound that requires the most care when handling and should prompt the use of a biological safety cabinet.
What is Methotrexate IV? This is a medicine used often for cancer treatment. It can be used to treat cancers such as leukemia.Great care must be taken during its handling.This includes the use of a BSC and proper protective equipment.Therefore, given the nature of the Methotrexate IV compound and its risk for those handling the substance, it is the option listed that most appropriately prompts the use of a hazard or biosafety cabinet.
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symptoms of phenylketonuria (pku) may be minimized or suppressed by a diet low in
Symptoms of Phenylketonuria (PKU) may be minimized or suppressed by a diet low in phenylalanine.
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited metabolic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in many foods. When phenylalanine builds up in the body, it can cause a range of symptoms, including intellectual disability, seizures, behavioral problems, and skin rashes.
The most effective way to manage PKU is through a carefully controlled diet that is low in phenylalanine. This often involves limiting or avoiding high-protein foods, such as meat, fish, eggs, dairy products, and nuts, which are all sources of phenylalanine.
Instead, people with PKU may consume special low-protein foods and formulas that are supplemented with other amino acids, vitamins, and minerals.
It's important to note that PKU is a lifelong condition and requires ongoing management. Regular monitoring of blood phenylalanine levels is necessary to ensure that the diet is working effectively and to make any necessary adjustments.
Additionally, people with PKU may need to take supplements or medications to help manage certain symptoms, such as seizures or depression.
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How do I answer questions on Brainly.
-Love, Ricardo H. Sparks
Faith is a patient who always disrupts the clinic. She is constantly complaining about everything from the moment he enters until the moment she leaves. Izzy is at the desk when she arrives to check out and pay her bill. When Izzy tells Faith that she has previous balance, she starts to argue with her and tells her she did not complete the paperwork properly. Izzy is not in charge of completing the paperwork and does not handle the billing. How can Izzy be courteous with Faith?
Answer: By telling faith that its not her job
Explanation:
A medical researcher finds a high incidence of covalent bonds between thymine and other nucleotides in the dna of skin cells of a patient. The most likely cause is.
The most likely cause is exposure to UV radiation.
A nucleotide is the primary constructing block of nucleic acids (RNA and DNA). A nucleotide consists of a sugar molecule (either ribose in RNA or deoxyribose in DNA) attached to a phosphate organization and a nitrogen-containing base. The bases in DNA include adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine.
A nucleotide is fashioned from a carbohydrate residue linked to a heterocyclic base with the aid of a β-D-glycosidic bond and to a phosphate institution at C-5'.
Nucleotides have a vital role within the physiology of organisms as constructing blocks of nucleic acids, storage of chemical energy, companies of activated metabolites for biosynthesis, structural moieties of coenzymes, and metabolic regulators.
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how would a developer determine which oop language or tool to use?
Answer: In procedural programming, data moves freely within the system from one function to another. In OOP, objects can move and communicate with each other via member functions.
Explanation: Therefore, Abstraction, encapsulation, inheritance, and polymorphism are four of the main principles of object-oriented programming (OOP).
A developer can determine which Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) language or tool to use by assessing project requirements, evaluating available resources, identifying the target platform, language features, language popularity, and support, etc.
The following are the steps:
1. Assess project requirements: The developer should first understand the specific needs and goals of the project, such as performance, scalability, and security.
2. Evaluate available resources: The developer should consider the existing resources, including team expertise, development tools, and any existing codebase that needs to be integrated.
3. Identify the target platform: The developer should identify the target platform(s) for the application, such as web, mobile, or desktop, and choose an OOP language that is compatible with those platforms.
4. Compare language features: The developer should evaluate the key features and benefits of different OOP languages, such as syntax, libraries, and community support.
5. Consider language popularity and support: The developer should also take into account the popularity of the OOP language, which can influence the availability of support resources, documentation, and third-party libraries.
6. Perform a cost-benefit analysis: The developer should weigh the benefits of each OOP language against its costs, including licensing fees, development time, and potential learning curve.
7. Conduct a pilot project or proof-of-concept: The developer may choose to create a small pilot project or proof-of-concept using the chosen OOP language, to evaluate its suitability for the specific project requirements.
By following these steps, a developer can make an informed decision on which Object-Oriented Programming language or tool best fits their needs and the needs of the project.
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The waiting room scene in Juno depends significantly on _____ to function effectively. complicated and disorienting point-of-view shots.
The waiting room scene in Juno depends significantly on complicated and disorienting point-of-view shots to function effectively.
What is the waiting room scene in Juno?In the movie Juno, unexpected pregnancy forces a quirky young lady to make a selfless choice for the unborn child.
Two teenagers, a chair—that was the beginning. 16-year-old Juno is currently expecting. She quickly decides against having the abortion after considering it and instead chooses to keep the child and place it for adoption.
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Sumaya is ordered ceftazidime PO 9mg/kg per day. Her weight is 10kg. Calculate Sumaya's dosage for the day
Answer:
Sumaya's dosage for the day is 90mg
Explanation:
Given
\(PO=9mg/kg\) --- daily
\(Weight = 10kg\)
Required
The daily dosage
To do this, we simply multiply Sumaya's weight and the dose of PO
So, we have:
\(Dosage = PO * Weight\)
\(Dosage = 9mg/kg * 10kg\)
\(Dosage = 90mg\)
a 22-year-old law student comes to the office complaining of severe abdominal pain radiating to his back. he states it began last night after hours of heavy drinking. he has had abdominal pain and vomiting in the past after drinking but never as bad as this. he cannot keep any food or water down, and these symptoms have been going on for almost 12 hours. he has had no recent illnesses or injuries. his past medical history is unremarkable. he denies smoking or using illegal drugs, but admits to drinking 6 to 10 beers per weekend night. he admits that last night he drank around 14 drinks. examination shows a young man appearing his stated age in some distress. he is leaning over on the examination table and holding his abdomen with his arms. his blood pressure is 90/60 and his pulse is 120. he is afebrile. his abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds, but he is very tender in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area. he has no murphy's sign or tenderness in the right lower quadrant. the remainder of his abdominal examination is normal. his rectal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. he has no inguinal hernias or tenderness with that examination. blood work is pending. what etiology of abdominal pain is most likely causing his symptoms?
The etiology of this patient's abdominal pain most likely resulted in a condition known as acute pancreatitis
What is acute pancreatitis?Acute pancreatitis is a condition in which the pancreas becomes inflamed (swelled) for a short period of time. The pancreas is a small organ that is located behind the stomach and helps in digestion. Most people with acute pancreatitis feel better within about a week and have no further problems.Acute pancreatitis is usually caused by gallstones or excessive alcohol consumption, but sometimes the cause is unknown.What is the best treatment for acute pancreatitis?Hospitalization to treat dehydration with intravenous (IV) fluids and oral fluids if swallowable.Oral or IV painkillers and antibiotics if pancreatic infection.If unable to eat, low-fat diet or feeding by tube or IV.To learn more about acute pancreatitis visit:
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A nurse is monitoring a client who has a head injury and is receiving mannitol 25% via IV infusion. The nurse should identify which of the following as an adverse effect of the medication and report to the provider?a. Crackles on auscultationb. Increase in urinary outputc. An intracranial pressure reading of 12 mm hgd. Glasgow comma scale rating of 15
A nurse monitoring a client with a head injury receiving mannitol 25% via IV infusion should be vigilant for any adverse effects of the medication. In this scenario, the nurse should identify option (A) crackles on auscultation as an adverse effect and report it to the provider.
Crackles on auscultation may indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, which could be a sign of pulmonary edema, a known adverse effect of mannitol.
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream, which can then be eliminated through the kidneys. Therefore, an increase in urinary output (option b) is an expected effect of mannitol and not a cause for concern.
An intracranial pressure reading of 12 mm Hg (option c) is within the normal range of 5-15 mm Hg, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the client's intracranial pressure. A Glasgow Coma Scale rating of 15 (option d) is the highest possible score, indicating the client is fully alert and oriented, which is a positive outcome.
In summary, the nurse should report crackles on auscultation as an adverse effect of mannitol to the provider, while the other options are either expected effects or positive outcomes for the client receiving this medication.
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Dr. Jones has a permit to perform CLIA-waived tests in his medical office. What is meant by a CLIA-waived test?
It is a simple test with low risk of incorrect results :)
Which of the following are ways in which masks help prevent the spread of 5 points
viruses? (Select all that apply.) *
A Masks catch respiratory droplets before they evaporate, preventing them from
becoming microdroplets that can be easily carried through the air.
B. Masks reroute droplets to the sides of a person's face.
C. Masks reduce the momentum of droplets they don't catch.
D. Masks prevent us from breathing as deeply, making us produce fewer droplets.
llen has type 2 diabetes. According to Ellen's latest medical report, her fasting blood glucose level was 195 mg/dl. After her physician reviewed the entire report, Ellen's physician told her to do a better job of controlling her blood glucose level. Why would Ellen's physician make such a recommendation to her?
Ellen's physician recommended she do a better job of controlling her blood glucose level because her fasting blood glucose level was high.
Type 2 diabetes is a condition that affects how the body processes blood sugar. Insulin resistance, which causes high blood sugar, is a hallmark of type 2 diabetes. There is no cure for type 2 diabetes, but it can be treated and managed. The fasting blood glucose testThe fasting blood glucose test is a laboratory blood test that measures the amount of glucose (sugar) in a person's blood after they have fasted for at least 8 hours.
It is a basic test that can help identify prediabetes, type 1 diabetes, and type 2 diabetes. Diagnosing diabetes using a fasting blood glucose testA person has diabetes if the fasting blood glucose level is 126 mg/dl or higher on two different occasions. Prediabetes, which is a precursor to type 2 diabetes, is diagnosed if the fasting blood glucose level is between 100 and 125 mg/dl.
Ellen's blood glucose level of 195 mg/dl is significantly higher than the normal range, indicating that she has type 2 diabetes. Ellen's physician advised her to do a better job of controlling her blood glucose level because high blood sugar levels can cause a variety of health issues.
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According to the segment, which of the following agencies ensures antibiotics are removed from animals’ systems before products are available to the public?
A-Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
B-United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)
C-Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
D-Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS)
Answer:
C-Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Explanation:
CDC supports the improved use of antibiotics in people and animals, and strongly supports the important work that the FDA and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) are doing to improve antibiotic use in veterinary medicine and agriculture.
Hope this helped!
Communication is presentational because it is ______
Answer:
Communication is presentational because it is never objective or totally neutral.
Credit goes to: unknown Quizlet user
necrosis is an orderly process by which cells intentionally die. T/F
False. Necrosis is an uncontrolled and accidental process by which cells die due to injury, infection, or other factors. It is not an intentional or orderly process.
False, necrosis is not an orderly process by which cells intentionally die. Instead, necrosis is an uncontrolled and chaotic form of cell death, typically caused by external factors such as infection or injury. The orderly process by which cells intentionally die is called apoptosis, which is a regulated and programmed cell death pathway.
Necrosis is an uncontrolled and accidental process by which cells die due to injury, infection, or other factors. It is not an intentional or orderly process.
necrosis is not an orderly process by which cells intentionally die. Instead, necrosis is an uncontrolled and chaotic form of cell death, typically caused by external factors such as infection or injury. The orderly process by which cells intentionally die is called apoptosis, which is a regulated and programmed cell death pathway.
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Necrosis is not an orderly process by which cells intentionally die; it refers to accidental cell death often caused by factors such as injury. The intentional death of cells in an orderly process is actually referred to as apoptosis.
Explanation:The statement, 'Necrosis is an orderly process by which cells intentionally die' is false. Necrosis refers to accidental cell death and is generally caused by factors such as injury or disease. It often leads to inflammation and can cause damage to surrounding tissue. Conversely, the orderly process where cells intentionally die is known as apoptosis. This is a crucial process that allows for cellular regeneration and helps maintain a balance in the body. External signaling or diseases such as viral infection and uncontrolled cell division can lead to apoptosis. Such a process is characterised by certain checkpoints that monitor the cell's health and abnormalities, based on which the process can be initiated.
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• when testing this cn we usually ask the patient to protrude their tongue. if the hypoglossal nerve is paralyzed, the tongue will not protrude out straight but rather will deviate to one side. what do you expect to see if the damage is in the umn and what do you expect to see if the damage is in the lmn?
The damage that may be seen is that the tongue will deviate towards the side opposite the lesion or damage.
What is the damage?The tongue will turn toward the side that is not affected or damaged. The term "contralateral deviation" describes this. For instance, if the right UMN is damaged, the tongue will protrude toward the left side.
The tongue will turn in that direction when a lesion or injury is present on that side. The term "ipsilateral deviation" refers to this. For instance, the tongue will veer to the right when protruded if the damage is to the right LMN.
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1. Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's medical expenses due to the fall on public parking lot?
2.
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Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's income due to her inability to work for up to four months?
What are the components of the communication process?
a nurse assessing a client's respiratory effort notes that the client's breaths are shallow and 8 per minute. shortly after, the client's respirations cease. which form of oxygen delivery should the nurse use for this client?
Until the patient is revived or can be intubated with an endotracheal tube, a manual rescucitation bag (Ambu bag) may be used to supply oxygen to the patient.
When should Ambu bags be used?Result for an image The patient may be given oxygen with a manual resuscitation bag (Ambu bag) until they can be intubated with an endotracheal tube or are revived.
Any patient who is not breathing enough or successfully enough can use a bag valve mask (BVM), also referred to as an Ambu bag, which is a portable device that offers positive pressure ventilation. It consists of a self-inflating bag, a mask, a one-way valve, and an oxygen reservoir.
What are some of the physical alterations brought on by aging that affect the respiratory system?As you age, your body experiences a number of changes that could reduce your lung capacity: Alveoli may sag and lose their form. Over time, the diaphragm may weaken and make it harder to breathe in and out. Only while working out will this difference be noticeable.
When providing care for elderly patients, what structural changes to the respiratory system should a nurse watch out for?Reduced coughing and laryngeal reflexes, decreased ciliary action and mucociliary clearance, and enlarged A-P diameter are all examples of typical aging-related alterations to the respiratory system. As a result of these modifications, aspiration and respiratory infections are more likely.
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