Answers
An enterostomal nurse is a specialized nurse who assists patients with colostomies in managing and understanding their new condition. In a teaching session about self-assessment and identifying signs and symptoms that need to be reported to the surgeon.
Patients should be instructed to monitor for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or increased pain around the stoma. They should also be aware of systemic symptoms like fever, chills, or weakness. It is important to regularly check for any skin irritation or breakdown around the stoma, as this may indicate issues with the colostomy appliance or improper care. Changes in stoma appearance: Patients should be advised to report any changes in the size, shape, or color of their stoma, such as swelling, retraction, or a pale or dark appearance. Obstruction: Signs of bowel obstruction, such as abdominal pain, cramping, bloating, nausea, vomiting, or a decrease in the usual output from the colostomy, should be reported immediately to the surgeon. Bleeding: Any unexplained bleeding from the stoma or in the colostomy output should be reported to the surgeon, as it could be a sign of a potential complication.
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Related Questions
the nurse is examining a neonate at age 10 minutes. which site should the nurse expect to see nonpathologic cyanosis?
Answers
Nonpathologic cyanosis, also known as acrocyanosis, is common in neonates and is usually seen in the hands and feet. It is a bluish discoloration of the skin that occurs due to reduced peripheral blood flow. It typically resolves within a few hours to a few days after birth.
Nonpathologic cyanosis can occur in healthy newborns in the first few minutes after birth. It is known as acrocyanosis and is characterized by a bluish-purple discoloration of the hands and feet. This happens because the blood vessels in the extremities constrict, reducing blood flow to these areas, resulting in a temporary bluish discoloration.
It is a normal finding and generally resolves within the first few hours or days of life. It is important to distinguish this from pathologic cyanosis, which is a serious medical condition that requires immediate medical attention.
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Which vascular device is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and iv fluids?
Answers
Groshong Catheter is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and iv fluids.
Explain Groshong Catheter?Soft, medical-grade silicone tubing with a closed, rounded tip makes up Groshong Catheters. Contrary to open-ended catheters, the closed end features a patented three-position valve (or valves) that, when not in use, remain closed while allowing liquids to flow in or out.
The catheter's tip is positioned in the superior vena cava, which is above the right atrium, by inserting it into one of the main central veins. To the right atrium, by inserting it into one of the main central veins. To reach the intended exit point, it is tunnelled subcutaneously for many inches.
The pressure-sensitive, \(3\)-position Groshong valve, which is patented, is a feature of the Groshong central venous catheter. The valve, which permits both fluid infusion and blood aspiration, is situated close to the radiopaque catheter's rounded, closed tip. The valve stays closed when not in use to prevent blood backflow and air embolism.
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how important is the function of each organ in our body
Answers
A participant missed several study visits and the research site staff becomes aware of a participant's death searching through public records. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Answers
Answer:
A. Report this as a Serious Adverse Event (SAE).
Explanation:
When undergoing a trial using a medical product, subjects might sometimes experience certain negative effects referred to as Serious Adverse Events. These effects might range from, hospitalization, death, congenital defects, disabilities, etc.
If the medical personnel suspects that the negative effect was as a result of the medical product used, it becomes necessary to report such as a Serious Adverse Event. So, in the scenario above where a participant suddenly misses participation and his death becomes known through public records, suspicions might be that the death was a serious adverse event caused by the study.
The nose is divided into right and left halves called the __________.
Answers
The nose is divided into right and left halves called the nasal cavities.
culture change means basing care on each individuals needs
Answers
what keeps the particles in a solid in this arrangement
Answers
Answer:
The particles of a solid are connected by strong forces, which pull the particles together. Although the particles can vibrate, they cannot move around easily. This arrangement explains why solids usually keep their shape.
Explanation:
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Psychologists who study the Nature/Nurture controvery often do so by focusing on a field known as:
Group of answer choices
Answers
Psychologist who study the Nature/Nurture controversy often does so by focusing on a field known as behavioral genetics.
What do you mean by Controversy?Controversy may be defined as a state of being opposite views to one another in any dispute, debate, or expression.
Behavioral genetics deals with the observable response of organisms to their external or internal stimuli. It contributes to the differential survival and reproduction of organisms.
Therefore, a psychologist who studies the Nature/Nurture controversy often does so by focusing on a field known as behavioral genetics.
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13
Select the correct answer.
What gives a cigarette its flavor?
® A
Nicotine
• B.
Tar
Carcinogens
D.
Artificial flavoring
Answers
Answer:
D artificial flavouring eg Menthol
Does having the Cov!d vaccine make it safe to be out in the public without the risk of getting the virus?
Answers
Answer:
short answer.....no
Explanation:
does not prevent contracting the virus....actually reduces severity of symptoms
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a milky pleural fluid that stains strongly positive with sudan iii indicates:
Answers
A milky pleural fluid that stains strongly positive with Sudan III indicates chylothorax.
Chylothorax is a medical condition that occurs when lymphatic fluid known as chyle accumulates in the pleural cavity. The condition is diagnosed when a milky pleural effusion contains a high level of triglycerides, which can be tested by staining the fluid with Sudan III. In addition, it is most commonly seen after thoracic surgery or malignancy (cancer).
The symptoms of chylothorax are chest pain, shortness of breath, coughing, and rapid breathing. Chylothorax can also cause a person to feel weak and fatigued. Treatment for chylothorax involves finding and treating the underlying cause and sometimes draining the accumulated fluid from the pleural space.
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What type of social determinants impact contemporary ethical decision making in Science and Medicine?
Your response should be in-depth and have references/in-text citations (as appropriate) and approximately 1.5 - 2 pages in length or a minimum of 750 words
Answers
The type of social determinants impact contemporary ethical decision making in Science and Medicine is ethnicity, socio-economic status, and education.
The relationship between social determinants and ethical decision-making in science and medicine is crucial. Factors such as race and ethnicity can impact how patients receive medical care, how they are treated, and how they perceive their medical care. Socioeconomic status is also a significant determinant of ethical decision-making in science and medicine. Patients from low-income communities may not have access to quality healthcare services, which can impact their medical outcomes. Additionally, individuals with higher education levels are more likely to understand medical treatments, which can lead to better medical outcomes.
The cultural beliefs of patients also have a significant impact on ethical decision-making in science and medicine. A patient’s culture and religion may influence their medical choices, leading to conflicts between patients, healthcare providers, and ethical standards.In conclusion, social determinants play a significant role in ethical decision-making in science and medicine. Healthcare providers must consider these factors when making decisions to provide equitable and just medical care. Therefore, social determinants should be an essential aspect of ethical considerations in medical care.
Reference:Mertz, M., & Allhoff, F. (2020). Social Determinants of Health, Prioritizing Resources, and Fair Allocation. The American Journal of Bioethics, 20(3), 5-15.
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When accepting a prescription for warfarin from a patient the technician should:
Answers
Answer: The Technician should notify the Pharmacist if the patient who is on Warfarin (Coumadin) is also buying aspirin. There is an interaction with these medication
Explanation:
How much active ingredient would you weigh to make 100ml of a 50% solution?
Answers
50g % solution always refers to total of 100g
FDA can only regulate dietary supplements when concerns for——— exist.
A. Drug abuse
B. Patient safety
C. Adherence
D. Effectively
Answers
What are the long term side effects of taking dicyclomine?.
Answers
Answer:
Serious side effects of Bentyl include mental changes such as confusion, short-term memory loss, hallucinations, or agitation.
In what ways can you reduce confusion and be sure physicians receive the proper medical records? Be specific. Have you ever had the opportunity or the challenge of developing a file or tracking system. Share your experiences and what worked and what did not.
Answers
No, i did not experienced as such challenge of developing a file or tracking system. The defensibility of a case depends on the medical record, which occasionally poses the toughest challenge. A medical record's main objective is to give a thorough and accurate account of the patient's medical history.
What is medical record?The medical record also serves a crucial secondary purpose, serving as the key piece of evidence in the successful defense of a claim for medical malpractice. A medical malpractice claim typically takes five years to be resolved.
This covers medical issues, diagnostics, your care and treatment, as well as the effects of those interventions. An accurate communication tool, a well-documented medical record reflects all clinically significant aspects of the patient's health.
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You learn that your resting metabolic rate is 2800 kcal/day. Based on this, how many ATP molecules need to hydrolyze to maintain general body function?
A: 400
B: 200
C: 450
D: 300
Answers
Answer:
The energy released from the hydrolysis of one ATP molecule is about 7.3 kcal. Therefore, the number of ATP molecules required to meet the resting metabolic rate of 2800 kcal/day is:
2800 kcal/day / 7.3 kcal/ATP = 383.56 ATP/day
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the answer is 384 ATP molecules per day.
Therefore, the closest answer choice is D: 300.
The root(s) of primary maxillary first molars are
Answers
Answer:
The maxillary first molar normally has three roots. The mesiobuccal root is broad distobuccal and has prominent depressions or flutings on its mesial and distal surfaces. The internal canal morphology is highly variable, but the majority of the mesiobuccal roots contain two canals.
Explanation:
A 56 year old woman with Left extremity weakness
A 56 year old woman with a past medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with left extremity weakness.
The condition initially began in January with weakness in her left foot and ankle. This remained stable until motor vehicle accident in April. The patient was evaluated for whiplash injury.
Two to three weeks following the accident, the patient noticed that the weakness had progressed up the leg.
As of July, the patient had developed weakness of the left hand.
By October, the patient had started to use a walker and then a wheelchair to ambulate.
In December, the patient was unable to grasp objects with her left hand and presented with atrophy of the hand muscles
Review of Pertinent Symptoms
No bulbar symptoms
No sensory loss
No neck pain
No bowel/bladder dysfunction
Chronic lower back pain
Localize neurologic lesions
Cortex/subcortex
Brainstem
Spinal cord
Peripheral Nerve
neuromucular Junction
Muscle
Physical Exam
Mental status intact
Cranial nerves (CNS) Intact
Motor Function
Strength
Left upper extremity 3/5 strength, except 2/5 strength in the dorsal interossei
Left lower extremity 3+/5 strength to all muscle groups tested
Right upper extremity/right lower extremity 5/5 strength.
Bulk significant atrophy in the left hand
Reflexes 3+ throghout
Sensation: intact throughout
Fasciulations within the left arm in the multiple muscle groups and less frequently in the right arm
The patient has typical Combined UMN and LMN disease findings
Rule out Mimics
Creatine kinase: 53
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C- reactive protein WNL
Antinuclear antibodies: negative
Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 1:2
Serum protein electrophoresis without M spike
Free light chains WNL
Rapid plasma reagin RPR was Negative
Vitamin B12 level WNL (533 pg/mL)
Copper level WNL (119 mcg/dL)
Negative for Lyme disease test
Vitamin E WNL
Human Immunodeficiency virus HIV was negative
Electromyography (EMG) Nerve Conduction Velocity
Consistent with Motor neuron disease
Left median motor and ulnar motor responses revealed low amplitude
All sensory nerve studies were intact with normal values
Needle EMG showed abnormal spontaneous activity with obvious neurogenic pattern on activation in all four extremities
Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Answers
Based on the patient's clinical history, physical examination findings, and diagnostic tests, the most likely diagnosis for this 56-year-old woman with left extremity weakness is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as motor neuron disease.
What is ALS?ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations in the muscles. The patient's symptoms of weakness initially starting in the left foot and ankle, and then progressing up the leg and involving the left hand, along with the atrophy of hand muscles and abnormal findings on electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction velocity testing, are consistent with the diagnosis of ALS.
Other potential mimics of motor neuron disease have been ruled out through laboratory tests and imaging studies, and the patient's clinical presentation is characteristic of combined upper motor neuron (UMN) and lower motor neuron (LMN) involvement, which is typical of ALS. Further evaluation and management should be done by a neurologist specializing in motor neuron diseases.
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which allegric condition is potentially life-threanting ?
Answers
Answer:
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to a trigger such as an allergy.
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5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?
Answers
Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
What is learning theories?Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.
The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.
Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.
Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
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Which of the following is an acceptable example of additional documentation?
A. Proof of Volunteer work at a local civic center
B. An award won at the local chili cook -off
C. A list of hobby's like canoeing or golf
D. A photo of yourself
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
That shows you care about your community.
Topical analgesics are medications that are applied directly to the skin to relieve pain. They can be used to temporarily relieve minor aches and pains of muscles and joints associated with arthritis, simple backache, strains, sprains, bruises, and more. They come in a variety of forms, with varying ingredients and different application methods and are increasing in popularity due to several factors such as precision targeting and better control, immediate relief, and perception of less medicine/more natural.Existing products in the brand’s portfolio deliver a cooling effect via three sensates (ingredients that provide therapeutic sensations), two pain relieving ingredients (menthol and camphor), and six essential oils. Three forms are available:
1. A non-greasy lotion
2. A fast-acting dry spray
3. A roll-on with a massaging, stainless steel tri-rollerball head (see below)
Answers
Topical analgesics are medications that are applied to the skin directly to relieve pain. These are commonly used to relieve minor aches and pains of muscles and joints. The analgesics can be used to cure several health issues, including arthritis, simple backache, strains, sprains, and bruises.
These topical analgesics are available in different forms, including gels, creams, sprays, lotions, and patches. With the different forms come varying ingredients and application methods. Topical analgesics are increasing in popularity due to various factors, including better control, precision targeting, immediate relief, and perception of more natural and less medicine.
It is important to note that topical analgesics are best suited for mild to moderate pain and are less effective for severe pain. Topical analgesics are available over the counter, and prescription-strength formulations are also available. Existing products in the brand's portfolio deliver a cooling effect via three senates (ingredients that provide therapeutic sensations), two pain relieving ingredients (menthol and camphor), and six essential oils.
The senates are the ingredients that provide therapeutic sensations, such as cooling, warming, or tingling. The pain-relieving ingredients, including menthol and camphor, provide temporary pain relief. Menthol is a commonly used topical analgesic, and it provides a cooling effect when applied to the skin. The six essential oils are used to provide fragrance and therapeutic benefits.
The three forms in which these topical analgesics are available are non-greasy lotion, fast-acting dry spray, and roll-on with a massaging, stainless steel tri-rollerball head. The non-greasy lotion is easy to apply and is ideal for use on larger areas of the body. The fast-acting dry spray is ideal for hard-to-reach areas and can be used on the go. The roll-on with a massaging, stainless steel tri-rollerball head is perfect for spot treatments and massages.
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Mass chemotherapy can be administered for all of the following , EXCEPT. 1. Lymphatic filariasis 2. Hookworm infection 3. Diphtheria 4. Onchocerciasis
Answers
Mass chemotherapy is a highly effective strategy for controlling and eliminating certain infectious diseases, including lymphatic filariasis, hookworm infection, and onchocerciasis. However, it is not effective against bacterial infections like diphtheria. The correct answer is 3.
Mass chemotherapy is a widely used strategy to control and eliminate certain infectious diseases that affect large populations. This approach involves treating all individuals within a targeted area, regardless of whether they are infected or not, with a specific medication that can kill or eliminate the infectious agent. Mass chemotherapy has been successfully used to combat several diseases, including lymphatic filariasis, hookworm infection, and onchocerciasis.Lymphatic filariasis, also known as elephantiasis, is a parasitic infection caused by microscopic worms that are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The disease can cause severe swelling in the legs, arms, and genitals, and can lead to permanent disability. Mass chemotherapy with drugs such as diethylcarbamazine and albendazole has been shown to effectively reduce the prevalence of the disease.Hookworm infection is another parasitic disease that affects millions of people worldwide, particularly in tropical and subtropical regions. The infection is caused by hookworm larvae that enter the body through the skin, usually via contaminated soil. Mass chemotherapy with drugs such as albendazole and mebendazole has been shown to be highly effective in reducing the prevalence of hookworm infection.Onchocerciasis, also known as river blindness, is a parasitic disease caused by a worm that is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black flies. The disease can cause severe itching, skin lesions, and blindness. Mass chemotherapy with the drug ivermectin has been shown to be highly effective in reducing the prevalence of onchocerciasis.However, mass chemotherapy is not effective against all infectious diseases. For example, diphtheria is a bacterial infection that is caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Mass chemotherapy is not effective against bacterial infections, and diphtheria is typically treated with antibiotics and antitoxin therapy. Therefore, mass chemotherapy cannot be administered for diphtheria.For more such question on Mass chemotherapy
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Postpartum mother has hair loss - most likely cause?
Answers
Postpartum hair loss is most likely caused by the hormonal changes that occur after childbirth.
What is the primary reason for hair loss in postpartum mothers?It's not uncommon for new mothers to experience hair loss in the months following childbirth. This hair loss, known as postpartum hair loss or postpartum alopecia, is most likely caused by the hormonal changes that occur after delivery.
During pregnancy, increased estrogen levels prolong the growing phase of the hair cycle, resulting in thicker, fuller hair. However, after delivery, estrogen levels drop, causing hair to enter the resting phase of the hair cycle and eventually fall out. Postpartum hair loss usually peaks around 3-4 months after delivery and may continue for up to a year.
It's important to note that postpartum hair loss is a normal part of the postpartum experience and is usually temporary. While there is no cure for postpartum hair loss, there are things that new mothers can do to help promote healthy hair growth, such as eating a well-balanced diet, staying hydrated, and avoiding harsh hair treatments.
If you're concerned about postpartum hair loss or if you're experiencing hair loss that seems excessive, you should speak with your healthcare provider. They may be able to offer you further guidance or suggest treatment options.
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What is the condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus
Answers
The condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus and into other areas of the body is called endometriosis.
What is the condition?Endometriosis condition can cause pain and discomfort, especially during menstrual periods.
Endometriosis can also lead to infertility in some cases. Treatment for endometriosis can include medication, surgery, or a combination of both, depending on the severity of the condition and the individual's symptoms.
Hence, this is the condition that is under study here.
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an antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of 3 out of 10 ahg-crossmatched donor units is most likely:
Answers
An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of 3 out of 10 ahg-crossmatched donor units is most likely a clinically significant antibody.
Clinically significant antibodies are known to cause in vitro hemolysis or have a history of causing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN). They can result in transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn.Clinically significant antibodies can be identified through a process of antibody screening, identification, and compatibility testing.
The compatibility testing process involves performing an AHG crossmatch test to assess compatibility between donor and recipient blood. AHG crossmatch test is used to detect antibodies that may have been missed by the antibody screen.
A 3 out of 10 AHG crossmatch result indicates that the patient's serum has reacted with 3 out of 10 donor red blood cells tested. This could mean that the patient has developed an alloantibody against an antigen present on the red cells of the 3 donor units.
In this scenario, it is advisable to avoid transfusing these units to the patient as they are incompatible and could lead to transfusion reactions. To ensure compatibility, compatible donor units should be selected for transfusion that are crossmatch compatible with the patient.
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Identify the abilities that contribute to good planning skills.
(medical terminology plato)
Answers
Answer:
Some abilities that contribute to good planning skills is being organized, being very open minded, good multi-tasking skills, having very good social skills, and having good knowledge on what you're planning on.
RBCs could not oxidize FAs. Why?
Answers
Red blood cells (RBCs) lack mitochondria, which are the primary site of fatty acid oxidation (FAO) in most cells. Therefore, RBCs do not have the necessary machinery to oxidize fatty acids.
Why are RBCs lacking mitochondria?Mitochondria are responsible for beta-oxidation, the process by which fatty acids are broken down to generate energy in the form of ATP. Without mitochondria, RBCs cannot perform beta-oxidation, and thus, they cannot oxidize fatty acids.
Instead, RBCs primarily rely on glycolysis to generate ATP, which is the breakdown of glucose to generate energy. RBCs also contain some enzymes that can generate NADPH through the pentose phosphate pathway, which is important for the maintenance of the redox state of the cell and the reduction of oxidized glutathione.
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