the nurse is caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection who develops mycobacterium avium complex (mac). which is the most significant desired outcome for this client?

Answers

Answer 1

The most significant outcome for a client with mycobacterium avium complex is for him or her to return to pre-illness weight.

The correct answer choice is option b.

Why a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection should return to pre-illness weight

The simple reason why the most considered result or way for such patients to return to pre-illness weight in the previous state is the only way that can be achieved is by using oral, enteral, or parenteral supplementation as the case may be.

That being said, this mycobacterium avium complex is an infection which manifests as a tuberculosis-like pulmonary process.

In conclusion, we can now confirm from the above task that the best way for a client with the health condition above is to make sure he or she returns back to its previous illness state.

Complete question:

The nurse is caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who develops Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). What is the most significant desire

outcome for this client?

a. Free from injury of drug side effects.

b. Return to pre-illness weight.

c. Adequate oxygenation.

d. Maintenance of intact perineal skin.

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Related Questions

15. The largest cell component is
a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleolus
c. Lysosome
d. Centrioles​

Answers

Answer:

b. Nucleus

The nucleus takes up the most space in the cell.

Match the situation to the type of healthcare service it describes.
a technician examines a patient’s X-ray to determine the location of a wrist fracture
a physiotherapist helps her patient regain the ability to walk following a serious accident
a staff member coordinates meals for each of the patients in the obstetrics ward
a professional uploads all of a patient’s medical information into an electronic health record

health informatics
therapeutic services
diagnostic services
support services

Answers

a.) diagnostic services
b.) therapeutic services
c.) health services
d.) support services

How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

set as brainliest

what is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer?

Answers

A useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer is the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level.

Prostate cancer is cancer that occurs in the prostate. The prostate is a small walnut-shaped gland in males that produces the seminal fluid that nourishes and transports sperm.

Prostate cancer is one of the most common types of cancer. Many prostate cancers grow slowly and are confined to the prostate gland, where they may not cause serious harm. However, while some types of prostate cancer grow slowly and may need minimal or even no treatment, other types are aggressive and can spread quickly.

Prostate cancer that's detected early — when it's still confined to the prostate gland — has the best chance for successful treatment.

Prostate cancer that's more advanced may cause signs and symptoms such as:

Trouble urinating

Decreased force in the stream of urine

Blood in the urine

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Joes manager , Claire , has a very busy week at the warehouse. Joe has been places in finding a room to put all the new deliveries but he has some questions to ask Claire. Which shows he respects her time ? A. emailing clair a long list of questions. B. booking a 10 min meeting to ask the most urgent questions. C. booking a two hour meeting for tmr to discuss all the questions at once D. calling claire after work to discuss his questions

Answers

Answer:

B. booking a 10 minute meeting

marco mr, zhou l, patil s, marcet je, varma mg, oommen s, et al. consolidation mfolfox6 chemotherapy after chemoradiotherapy improves survival in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer: final results of a multicenter phase ii trial. dis colon rectum. 2018;61(10):1146-55.

Answers

The given information is a citation for a research paper titled "Consolidation mFOLFOX6 chemotherapy after chemoradiotherapy improves survival in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer: final results of a multicenter phase II trial." The paper was published in the journal "Diseases of the Colon & Rectum" in 2018.

The study investigated the effects of consolidation chemotherapy with mFOLFOX6 after chemoradiotherapy in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer. The final results showed that this approach improved survival in these patients. The citation provides the title of the research paper: "Consolidation mFOLFOX6 chemotherapy after chemoradiotherapy improves survival in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer: final results of a multicenter phase II trial."It mentions the authors of the paper: Marco MR, Zhou L, Patil S, Marcet JE, Varma MG, Oommen S, et al. The citation includes the name of the journal where the paper was published: Diseases of the Colon & Rectum.

The year of publication is mentioned: 2018. The citation provides the volume and issue number of the journal: 61(10). It includes the page numbers of the paper: 1146-55. The given citation is a reference for a research paper titled "Consolidation mFOLFOX6 chemotherapy after chemoradiotherapy improves survival in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer: final results of a multicenter phase II trial." The paper was published in the journal "Diseases of the Colon & Rectum" in 2018. The authors of the paper are Marco MR, Zhou L, Patil S, Marcet JE, Varma MG, Oommen S, et al. The study aimed to investigate the effects of consolidation chemotherapy with mFOLFOX6 after chemoradiotherapy in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer.

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1IRB members must:
A. All be physicians who can assess subject safety.
B. Be affiliated with the institute or study site conducting the study.
C. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
D. Be investigators on the study.
2The site staff has prepared a postcard to be sent to past study participants telling them about a new study that they may have an interested in. This postcard does not have to be reviewed by the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4An IRB may perform an expedited review of a protocol or informed consent form change if the change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies:
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every 6 months.
C. Once a year.
D. Every 2 years.

Answers

1. IRB members must have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.

They do not necessarily have to be physicians, but they must have the expertise to assess subject safety.

2. FALSE. Any communication with study participants, including postcards, must be reviewed by the IRB to ensure it is ethical and does not coerce or unduly influence participants.

3. TRUE. A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB to avoid potential conflicts of interest.

4. TRUE. An expedited review can be conducted by a distinct member of the IRB if the proposed change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.

5. The regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies at least once a year, but more frequent reviews may be required depending on the level of risk involved in the study.

It is the responsibility of the IRB to determine the appropriate frequency of review based on the risks and benefits of the study.

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Does the posterior cord in the brachial plexus pass through the superior, middle, and inferior trunks?

Answers

The posterior divisions of the brachial plexus's upper, middle, and lower trunks come together to create the posterior cord. The second section of the axillary artery is behind it.

What develops into the brachial plexus' posterior cord?

The posterior cord is where the axillary nerve originates. From the brachial plexus near the lower edge of the subscapularis muscle, the axillary nerve travels as the radial nerve along the inferior and posterior surface of the axillary artery.

Part of the brachial plexus is the upper (superior) trunk. It is created by the ventral rami of the fifth (C5) and sixth (C6) cervical nerves coming together. An anterior and posterior division can be found on the upper trunk.

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Refer to the case study at the beginning of chapter 17 in your Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting Power Point and use the information you have learned to answer the following questions.

Answers

The case study depicts that the error that Susan made in preparing the injection is that she should have used safety needles.

How to analyze the case study?

1. Susan should have used safety needles rather than non-safety style for the intramuscular injection approach.

2. HIV, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C infections are tested for due to needlestick injury.

3. Based on the evidence provided, Linda can be held accountable since she should have used safety needles and by being more careful when discarding the needle and syringe after use, medical negligence might have been prevented. She ought to be aware of the consequences and her negligence.

4. Regardless of the employees' prior training or education, employers who have workers exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials are required by OSHA's bloodborne pathogen regulations to provide annual training to all workers.

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Refer to the case study at the beginning of chapter 17 in your Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting


The
peripheral nervous system (PNS) connects to the brain and spinal
cord by 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves .
What is the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerve

Answers

         The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system is 12:43.

           For 12 pairs of cranial nerves, there are 31 spinal nerve pairs, a total of 43 paired nerves together forming the peripheral nervous system.

         PNS has both cranial and spinal nerves. 12 pairs of cranial nerves connect directly to the brain, and 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord. Together 12 + 31 = 43, so there are 43 total nerves in PNS.

To calculate the ratio:

divide the no of cranial nerves by the total pair of nerves

12(cranial nerves)/43(total nerves)

12/43

The ratio is 12:43

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The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is 12:43.

The peripheral nervous system consists of two main components: the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves. The cranial nerves are a set of 12 pairs of nerves that directly connect the brain to various parts of the head, neck, and upper body. These nerves emerge from the base of the brain and are responsible for functions such as vision, hearing, taste, smell, facial expressions, and motor control of the head and neck.

On the other hand, the spinal nerves are a set of 31 pairs of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and extend to different regions of the body. These nerves control sensation, movement, and organ function in the torso and lower body.

When considering the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the PNS, we add the 12 pairs of cranial nerves to the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, resulting in a total of 43 pairs of nerves. Therefore, the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves is 12:43.

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how patients breath when the respiratory system is incapacitated

Answers

The patient has to inhale in and exhale out slowly and if that happens to be too much for the patient diaphragmatic breathing should work

Research suggests that social support be integrated with functional behavioral assessment and positive behavioral intervention support specifically in the case of children with
a. Down syndrome.
b. emotional or behavioral disorders.
c. learning disabilities.
d. physical disabilities.

Answers

Social support be integrated with functional behavioral assessment and positive behavioral intervention support specifically in the case of children with Emotional or behavioral disorders.

Research suggests that integrating social support with functional behavioral assessment and positive behavioral intervention support is particularly beneficial for children with emotional or behavioral disorders. These children often experience challenges in regulating their emotions and behaviors, which can impact their social interactions and relationships. By combining social support, which includes resources, relationships, and assistance from others, with the assessment and intervention approaches mentioned, a comprehensive and holistic approach can be implemented to address the unique needs of these children. Social support can help promote positive social skills, emotional well-being, and adaptive behaviors, while the functional behavioral assessment and positive behavioral intervention support can provide targeted strategies to address specific behavioral challenges. Together, these approaches create a supportive environment that fosters the and overall well-being of children with emotional or behavioral disorders.

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the nonintrusive abr test is given to an infant when it is suspected that he or she might have a ________.

Answers

The non-invasive ABR (Auditory Brainstem Response) test is given to an infant when it is suspected that he or she might have a hearing loss.

This test measures the electrical activity generated by the auditory nerve and brainstem in response to sound stimuli.

ABR is a painless and non-invasive test that can be performed on infants who are too young or uncooperative for conventional behavioral hearing tests. The infant is typically sleeping or relaxed during the test, and electrodes are placed on their scalp to measure the electrical response.

ABR is used to diagnose hearing loss in infants, including congenital or early-onset hearing loss, as well as to monitor the progression of hearing loss in infants with conditions such as premature birth, meningitis, or genetic disorders.

The ABR test provides important information to guide clinical decision making and ensure that infants with hearing loss receive appropriate intervention and support to enhance their language and cognitive development.

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Which of the following is NOT a function of fats?

Answers

where are the choicess aaa

The fat function does not involve the removing of the wastage products.

What is fat?

Fat represents the term that explained the macronutrient classes that are applied in the metabolism. It gives the means for storing the energy and acts as the food source. The functions of the fat involved protecting the organs, insulating the organs, providing energy, helping in the absorption of the vitamins i.e. fat-soluble such as vitamin A, E, D and K

Therefore, The fat function does not involve the removing of the wastage products.

This question is incomplete. please find the options below.

a. They remove waste products.

b. They help your body absorb fat-soluble vitamins.

c. They support and cushion your organs.

d. They help insulate your body.

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Pharmacognosy is the study of the medical properties of drugs obtained from
A. artificial pharmaceuticals.
B. natural sources. ✅
C. co-enzymes only.
D. IV solutions.

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

but I have a grh have a great day of school and again and again and again and again and

nhi hai na ki Jay Shree shyameat day of school and again

Discussion Topic
No Res!
The discussion is where you discuss a specific health topic with the rest of the class.
Read through the topic thoroughly, then post your thoughts on the appropriate discussion
board. Write at least one well-developed paragraph. As this is a discussion, don't forget to
respond to at least two other students. Please be courteous and use proper netiquette.
Discussion 2.2 Alcohol Laws
Do you believe that the current alcohol laws are strict enough, or are they too strict?
Why?
Exit Graded Discussion
ASAP

Discussion TopicNo Res!The discussion is where you discuss a specific health topic with the rest of the

Answers

Answer:

I think they are not stricked enough because of the number rate of deaths caused by achohol.  There are 95,000 deaths in the United States each year, or 261 deaths per day. These deaths shorten the lives of those who die by an average of almost 29 years, for a total of 2.8 million years of potential life lost. If the achohol laws were more stircked this would not happen. There are many people being abused by alcoholics which when children grow up around alcoholics they most likly beome and alcoholic.

Explanation: Phew! I get pationate talking about this type stuff. If this does not get you an A then I dont know what will. Plz mark brainliest

Short Answer (1-3 sentences): What does the term DALY stand for, and how is it a better measure of disease impact than cause of death?

Answers

Answer:

The overall burden of disease is assessed using the disability-adjusted life year (DALY), a time-based measure that combines years of life lost due to premature mortality (YLLs) and years of life lost due to time lived in states of less than full health, or years of healthy life lost due to disability (YLDs).

Explanation:

In the heart, all the following are true except :
a) the pericardium limits sudden dilatation of the ventricl
b) the left ventricle gives an aid to the right ventricle
c) the left atrium is the first part to contract.
d) the left side of the intervent. septum is depolarized bet
right side .

Answers

Answer: c

Explanation:

Test the oiren hyostesia.

Answers

Testing the oiren hyostesia involves evaluating sensory perception in individuals. This assessment aims to determine if there are any deficits or abnormalities in their ability to perceive sensations such as touch, temperature, pain, or vibration.

Oiren hyostesia refers to a condition characterized by abnormal or diminished sensory perception. Testing this condition involves assessing the sensory responses of individuals to various stimuli. The objective is to determine if there are any deficits or abnormalities in their ability to perceive sensations such as touch, temperature, pain, or vibration.

During the testing process, a range of techniques may be employed. One common method is the use of sensory stimuli applied to different parts of the body, such as light touches, temperature changes, or vibrations. The individual's responses to these stimuli are carefully observed and recorded. Additionally, specialized tools and equipment, such as monofilaments or sensory testing devices, may be utilized to provide standardized assessments of sensory perception.

The results of oiren hyostesia testing can provide valuable insights into an individual's sensory function and help diagnose any sensory impairments or abnormalities. This information is crucial for healthcare professionals in developing appropriate treatment plans and interventions tailored to the individual's specific needs.

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Why is Z track method used?

Answers

I.M. injections using THE Z-TRACK Technique stop irritating and discoloring drugs (such iron dextran) from seeping into the surrounding tissues.

The Z-track method: what is it and why is important?

For all I.M. treatments in adults, YOU SHOULD employ the Z-TRACK METHOD. This approach reduces skin irritation, helps seal the medication in the tendon, and avoids drug leaking into the surrounding tissues by creating a zigzag pattern that plugs the needle track.

What is the benefit of intramuscular injection utilizing the Z-track technique?

It's quite easy: A superior injection method is the Z-track. It has been demonstrated to lessen skin lesions there at injection site as well as pharmaceutical leaks into subcutaneous tissue. Also, it doesn't pain patients as badly as a typical I.M. injection.

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Why is “being good under pressure” an important quality for anyone who wants to work in the military aviation sector?

Answers

Answer:

Military aviation is all about using aircraft, such as planes and helicopters, for the purpose of national defense and war. If you're in a midair battle, and there's shots being fired at you, obviously it is very important to remain calm under the pressure of possibly being killed.

Answer:

Being good under pressure is a crucial quality for anyone working in the military aviation sector because it can mean the difference between life and death. For example, fighter pilots must be able to remain calm and focused in combat situations to make smart decisions and execute complex maneuvers. Similarly, air traffic controllers must be able to handle high-stress situations, such as landing multiple planes simultaneously during bad weather. In both cases, failing to remain calm and focused could lead to disastrous consequences, making this quality essential for anyone working in military aviation.

Please identify the Category Range in ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM for
Neoplasms, Mental Disorders, Diseases of the Genitourinary system,
and Diseases of the Circulatory system.

Answers

The category range for Diseases of the Circulatory system in ICD-9-CM is 390-459 and in ICD-10-CM is I00-I99. The circulatory system is responsible for transporting blood and nutrients throughout the body. Diseases of the Circulatory system can include conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and stroke.

ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM are classification systems used in medical coding. The codes are used for coding diagnoses and procedures in medical records. The categories range in ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM for Neoplasms, Mental Disorders, Diseases of the Genitourinary system, and Diseases of the Circulatory system are explained below:

Neoplasms

The category range for Neoplasms in ICD-9-CM is 140-239 and in ICD-10-CM is C00-D49.

Neoplasms are commonly known as tumors, which is an abnormal growth of cells in the body.

Neoplasms can be benign or malignant.

Mental Disorders

The category range for Mental Disorders in ICD-9-CM is 290-319 and in ICD-10-CM is F01-F99. Mental disorders are conditions that affect an individual's mood, thinking, or behavior. They can be caused by biological, environmental, or psychological factors.

Diseases of the Genitourinary system

The category range for Diseases of the Genitourinary system in ICD-9-CM is 580-629 and in ICD-10-CM is N00-N99. The genitourinary system is a system of organs within the body responsible for reproduction and elimination.

Diseases of the Genitourinary system can include infections, injuries, and abnormalities of the kidneys, bladder, urethra, and reproductive organs.

Diseases of the Circulatory system

The category range for Diseases of the Circulatory system in ICD-9-CM is 390-459 and in ICD-10-CM is I00-I99. The circulatory system is responsible for transporting blood and nutrients throughout the body. Diseases of the Circulatory system can include conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and stroke.

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Chris is a 5-year-old male who presents today to have four stitches removed from his forehead. Ten days ago he was playing on his swing set and fell off the slide, hitting his head on the side of the slide and lacerating the site. He was taken to the emergency room, where four stitches were placed. He is here in the office now to have the wound checked and sutures removed.


The wound is 2.5 cm long and healed nicely. No redness, infection, or drainage is noticed. The 4 sutures were removed without a problem.


ICD-10-PCS Code Assignment:

Answers

After the stitches are removed, the wound will continue to heal, and it is important to keep it clean and dry to prevent infection.

Chris is a 5-year-old boy who is having four stitches removed from his forehead. This is because ten days ago he had an accident while playing on his swing set and hit his head on the side of the slide, causing a laceration. He was taken to the emergency room where he received four stitches. Today, his wound is 2.5 cm long and has healed nicely. There is no evidence of infection, redness, or drainage. Removing the stitches is a simple and straightforward procedure that can be done in the office without any problems.

It is essential to have stitches removed in a timely manner to avoid any complications. Leaving them in for too long can cause scarring, infection, and delayed healing. The length of time stitches remain in place will vary depending on the location and size of the wound. In Chris's case, ten days was an appropriate amount of time.

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Risk Management Plan.

For this assignment, you will create a Risk Management Plan for a Community Health Center that you will be able to choose (Any Health Care Facility). The Risk Management Plan is designed to support the mission and vision of the Facility you choose as it pertains to clinical risk and patient safety as well as visitor, third party, volunteer, and employee safety. You are encouraged to choose (Any Health Care Facility: Hospital, Doctor Office, Emergency Care Center, etc.).

Answers

Risk Management Plan for a Community Health Center

1. Introduction

  - Provide an overview of the Community Health Center and its mission and vision statements.

  - Explain the importance of risk management in ensuring the safety of patients, visitors, employees, and volunteers.

  - Outline the goals and objectives of the Risk Management Plan.

2. Risk Identification

  - Identify potential risks and hazards associated with the Community Health Center, considering all aspects of the facility's operations, including clinical care, administrative functions, and facility management.

  - Conduct risk assessments and inspections to identify areas of concern.

  - Engage staff members, volunteers, and other stakeholders to gather input on potential risks.

3. Risk Assessment and Analysis

  - Evaluate the identified risks based on their likelihood and potential impact on patients, staff, visitors, and the organization as a whole.

  - Prioritize the risks based on their severity and the frequency of occurrence.

  - Determine the areas that require immediate attention and develop action plans accordingly.

Note: The above Risk Management Plan provides a general outline and should be customized to fit the specific needs and context of the chosen Community Health Center.

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in the virginia pharmacy board case, the government claimed that the prohibited pharmacist advertising was either false, misleading, or that they proposed illegal transactions.

Answers

True, in the virginia pharmacy board case, the government claimed that the prohibited pharmacist advertising was either false, misleading, or that they proposed illegal transactions.

What is virginia pharmacy board case?

The Virginia Citizens Consumer Council, speaking for consumers of prescription drugs, challenged a Virginia regulation that said it was improper for certified pharmacists to promote the costs of their prescription medications. The Virginia State Board of Pharmacy requested review from the Supreme Court after a three-judge District Court panel's adverse decision was appealed.

The Supreme Court ruled, 7-1, that both willing speakers and willing listeners are equally protected by the First Amendment. The Court stated that free speech rights apply to commercial communication just like they do to noncommercial speech in situations like price advertising.

425 U.S. 748, Consumer Council (1976) The First Amendment aims to safeguard both listeners and speakers of protected speech.

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How is the unusual flexibility of the human shoulder joint related to the habitat of our primate ancestors?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

In the theory of evolution, we evolved from primates such as monkeys. These primate ancestors created habitats high above the ground in the trees. To make this possible and make traversal easier they developed flexible shoulders over the years which allowed them to easily swing from tree to tree, in order to traverse their habitats, reach different foods, and escape from predators with ease. Since this trait was useful to their survival it stuck from generation to generation and is why we as humans have unusual flexibility in our shoulder joint.

The nurse is teaching the breast self-examination technique to women. In which order should the nurse instruct the steps of breast self-examination technique? List it in numerical order:
A. palpate axilla
B. palpate breast from center outward using the finger pads
C. inspect axilla
D. inspect breast
E. palpate nipple

Answers

Gently yet firmly press down on the entire right breast making little movements with your left hand's middle fingers. Then either stand or sit. Breast tissue is located there, so feel about there. Squeeze the nipple gently to check for discharge.

What are the three ways to conduct a breast self-exam?

The circular approach, the "wheel spokes" method, and the grid method are the three options you have. Use the fat pads on the 3 middle finger fingertips when performing a breast self-exam.

How do you perform a nursing breast exam?

Light pressure should be palpated first, then medium pressure, and hard pressure should be used to finish the examination. Palpate in a circular motion starting at the nipple area.

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The main post-mortem of omphalitis cases is

a.

unabsorbed of the yolk sac

b.

unabsorbed of the crop

c.

enlargement of the liver

d.

swallow of the spleen​

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

enlargement of the liver

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I take care of a beutiful white and black spotted cat and I noticed something red and sticky on his ear. It was a huge gash. What should I use to clean it properly without having to take him to an animal hospital??

Answers

Answer:

Ear cleaning is not usually necessary in cats. Most cats are fine without it, but for those who are prone to wax build-up and/or ear infections, ear cleaning is a very important part of your cat’s hygiene needs.It is highly recommended to use a good quality ear cleaner. Cleaners with hydrogen peroxide or alcohol can cause irritation within the ear canal, especially if the canal is inflamed or ulcerated. Some ear cleaners have antibacterial or antifungal ingredients to help prevent ear infections. Certain cleaners are better at removing wax build-up. Your veterinarian can help you decide which ear cleaning solution is best for your pet.DO NOT use cotton tip applicators (Q-tips) due to the risk of perforating the ear drum or causing trauma to the ear canal. In addition, the use of cotton tip applicators can push debris further into the canal.

Explanation:

Era cleaning is not usually necessary in cats but you could do it if you want but most cats are find without it but people that are prone to wax build up and eat infections.

a client with suspected renal dysfunction is scheduled for excretory urography. the nurse reviews his history for conditions that may warrant changes in client preparation. normally, the client should be mildly hypovolemic (fluid depleted) before excretory urography. which history finding calls for the client to be well hydrated?

Answers

A client with suspected renal dysfunction scheduled for excretory urography should be mildly hypovolemic before the procedure. However, there are certain conditions that could warrant changes to this protocol, and one of these is a history of diabetes. When a patient has a history of diabetes, it is important to ensure that they are well hydrated before the procedure. This is because diabetes can lead to dehydration, which can have negative impacts on the results of the excretory urography.

To ensure the client is well hydrated for the procedure, the nurse should ensure the patient has had plenty of fluids to drink in the days before the procedure. Additionally, the patient should be encouraged to continue drinking fluids until the procedure, and fluids should be made available during the procedure. This will help to ensure the patient has enough fluids to prevent dehydration during the procedure.

When preparing a patient with a history of diabetes for excretory urography, it is important to ensure they are well hydrated. This is because diabetes can lead to dehydration, which can affect the accuracy of the procedure results. To ensure the patient is well hydrated, they should have plenty of fluids before the procedure, and fluids should be made available during the procedure.

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at a recent faculty meeting, mr. peters, the school principal, asked teachers to make a point of developing more personal relationships with students. which of the following is one way to easily implement that directive? please reply to all will give a likeDetermine the upper-tail critical values of F in each of the following two-tail tests. a. = 0.05, n = 10, n = 11 b. x = 0.01, n = 10, n = 11 c. = 0.10, n = 10, n = 11 a. The cr In contrast to vitamins, which contain many carbon and hydrogen molecules, minerals such as zinc, calcium or phosphate are said to be __________ nutrients. In two or three sentences, explain the Supreme Court's decision in Worcester v. Georgia. Jenny and Erik plan to make one batch of cookies today and two more tomorrow.A package of butter has 4 sticks, each of which equals 1/2(Fraction) cup. Erik and Jenny have 2 3/4(Fraction) packages of butter. Do they have enough butter to make three batches? Will they have any butter left over? If so, how much? If not, how much more butter do they need? Enter your answer and explanation in the box. consider the reaction when aqueous solutions of chromium(iii) bromide and sodium hydroxide are combined. the net ionic equation for this reaction is: what is the minimum number of parity bits required to protect a 128-bit word using the sec/ded code? what is 1 5/8 + 2 1/3= what will my diet lack, if i eat healthy food choices from each food group, but i eat the same thing every day? Managers must recognize that motivating individuals today requires: Jorge y yo _____ ocupadosa. estamosb. estnc. estsd. estoy What is the perimeter of this parallelogram?A)78 inB)128 in156 inD)186 inE)1400 in 5.In the text, Henry appeals to ethos by demonstrating his character and credibility. Which of thefollowing statements best establishes Henry's trustworthiness?B.C.D."It is only in this way that we can hope to arrive at truth, and fulfil the greatresponsibility which we hold to God and our country." (Paragraph 1)"I have but one lamp by which my feet are guided; and that is the lamp of experience."(Paragraph 3)"I ask gentlemen, sir, what means this martial array, if its purpose be not to force us tosubmission?" (Paragraph 3)"An appeal to arms and to the God of Hosts, is all that is left us!" (Paragraph 4)4 Fill in the blank with the correct imperfect conjugation of the verb in parentheses.T __________sola ayer. (estar)estabasestarestsestoy Convert the complex number, z = 8 (cos(/4)+sin(/4)) from polar to rectangular form.Enter your answer as a + bi. Consider a second-order system with the transfer function b G(s) $2+as+b where a-8, b=25. A. Please find the natural frequency w, and the damping ratio . B. Please determine the overshoot % OS and settling time T,. C. Please determine the type of response (overdamped, underdamped, undamped or critically damped) D. If a is decreased from a-8 to a=6, is the overshoot going to be larger or smaller? What is an equation of the line that passes through the point (6,1) and isperpendicular to the line 2x + 3y = 18? Financo. Suppose that $3,000 is invested at 5 9% annual interest rate, compounded monthly. How much money will be in the account in (A) 8 months? () 3 years? (A) Amount after 8 month: $(Round to the nearest cont.) (3) Amount after 3 years Unscramble the following outline of a presentation describing a job description. Put the entries into standard outline form using the principles of outlining discussed in the chapter. Hint: the outline contains two main points.BenefitsAnalyze reportsCollect completed reportsMid-range salaryHealth insuranceBonus possibleOne report from marketingResponsibilitiesThree weeks vacationGroup planSummarize dataFile reportsPrepare forecastOne report from productionYearly raiseUse file cabinets in main officeMonthly premium Files should be alphabetized On November 1, 2019, Movers, Inc., paid $24,000 for 2 years' rent beginning on November 1. The Prepaid rent balance at December 31, 2019 equals ______.