Before administering an opioid analgesic, the nurse should assess the patient's pain level, the type and duration of pain, the patient's medical history (including any allergies, respiratory or liver problems), any other medications the patient is currently taking (including other pain medications), and the patient's vital signs (such as respiratory rate and blood pressure).
Before administering an opioid analgesic, the nurse should assess the following factors:
1. Patient's pain level: Determine the severity of the pain to ensure the appropriate dose is given.
2. Patient's medical history: Review the patient's history for any allergies or contraindications to opioid analgesics.
3. Previous response to opioids: Assess how the patient has responded to opioid analgesics in the past, if applicable.
4. Vital signs: Monitor the patient's blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation to ensure stability before administering the dose.
5. Kidney and liver function: Evaluate the patient's kidney and liver function, as these organs are responsible for metabolizing and excreting the medication.
6. Potential drug interactions: Check for any medications the patient is currently taking that may interact with the opioid analgesic.
By assessing these factors, the nurse can ensure the safe and effective administration of the opioid analgesic dose.
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An __ drug is also known as a tranquilizer
Answer:
An anxiolytic drug is also known as a tranquilizer
Explanation:
You are seated at a table in your favorite coffee shop. You have studied all night and
you fell asleep. You are suddenly awakened by the fire alarm: this chain of events is
an example of what process?
The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. The child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered to the child for each dose? Round the answer to the hundredth place
Answer:
Each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
Explanation:
Given that the doctor prescribed 3 mg / kg twice daily for 5 days, the child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg / mL, to determine how many mL should be administered to the child for each dose, the following should be done calculation:
1 pound = 0.453592 kilos
35 pounds = 0.453592 x 35 = 15.8757 kilos
15.8757 x 3 = 47.6271
Thus, each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
1 kg = 2.205 pound
Since the child weigh 35 pounds, hence:
35 pounds = 35 pounds * 1 kg per 2.205 pound = 15.88 kg
The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. For each dose, the mg needed is:
mg = 3 mg/kg * 15.88 kg = 47.64 mg
Since the medication is available as 50 mg/mL, hence:
ml = 47.64 ml / 50 mg/mL = 0.95 ml
0.95 ml should be administered to the child for each dose
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The emergency shutdown button should be used to immediately cut power to the scanner electrical system in each of the following situations except:
A. Loud popping noises and smoke come from the scanner.
B. Sprinklers go off in scan room, but there is no fire.
C. Scan room fire.
D. The subject in the scanner squeezes the emergency ball.
17. You enter the water to rescue a victim with a suspected spinal injury. You determine that
the victim is not breathing. What should you do next?
Answer:
Explanation:
You would remove the victim from the water, and use the Extrication Using a Backboard at the Pool Edge technique.
Answer:
resuscitate her/him
Explanation:
To get the water out
What potential causes of disease do you think either or both persons might have?
Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska working outdoors much of the time managing her wheat farm.
Answer:
Nathan Zimmer lives in Northeastern Pennsylvania which is an area with elevated methane gas levels in the drinking water. It is not toxic but highly explosive, however, a high concentration of methane gas level can lead to Asphyxiation. It is a condition that can cause death, in this person can not get enough amount of oxygen to lungs.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska spends a long time on a wheat farm who can get allergic reactions due to dust from moldy hay, straw and grain. Pesticides and herbicides can result in chemical burns, respiratory illness, or poisoning.
Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water. Thus, option A is correct.
Where the Nathan Zimmer lives?Nathan Zimmer lives in Northeastern Pennsylvania which is an area with elevated methane gas levels in the drinking water. It is not toxic but highly explosive, however, a high concentration of methane gas level can lead to Asphyxiation. It is a condition that can cause death, in this person can not get enough amount of oxygen to lungs.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska spends a long time on a wheat farm who can get allergic reactions due to dust from moldy hay, straw and grain. Pesticides and herbicides can result in chemical burns, respiratory illness, or poisoning.
Therefore, Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water. Thus, option A is correct.
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Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These are called:
a. Psychological factors
b. Genetic predispositions
c. Environmental influences
d. Biosocial forces
Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These are called Biosocial forces. Biosocial forces are a mixture of biological, social, and environmental factors that interact with one another and influence behavior.
It refers to a combination of both biological and social factors. Factors like Genetics, brain structure, physiology, and the environment in which one grows up are also included in this. Human development is influenced by biosocial factors in a variety of ways. Biosocial factors that are influential in human development are genetics, brain structure, physiology, and the environment in which one develops. These factors can significantly impact our development. The environment we grow up in can also affect us, as well as our physical, mental, and social health. When we talk about mental health, it is very important to understand how biosocial factors are related to behavior.
Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These changes can lead to many other problems such as mental health disorders. The most common disorders are depression and anxiety, which are now becoming more prevalent. People suffering from chronic illnesses are prone to mental health problems. This is because these illnesses have an effect on the brain, which can lead to changes in mood and behavior.
Biosocial factors are a combination of biological, social, and environmental factors that interact with one another and influence behavior. These factors significantly impact our development. Our physical, mental, and social health is affected by the environment in which we grow up. Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior, leading to mental health disorders like depression and anxiety.
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When patients use ?, they sometimes need to take potassium supplements because these drugs prevent reabsorption of potassium. If patients are unable to produce their own ?, they probably have high blood sugar levels. ? can reduce the muscle contractions that cause some of the symptoms in patients with chronic gastrointestinal problems. A ? can be used to treat the high levels of stomach acid that can lead to chronic heartburn.
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg 2021
Explanation:
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg
Explanation:
1. Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's medical expenses due to the fall on public parking lot?
2.
Question Workspace
Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's income due to her inability to work for up to four months?
what high to low pons will blow?
The phrase "high to low pons will blow" is a mnemonic device used to help remember the order of structures in the brainstem from top to bottom.
The brainstem is the part of the brain that connects the spinal cord to the rest of the brain, and it plays an important role in controlling many vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The brainstem is divided into three parts: the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla oblongata. The phrase "high to low pons will blow" refers to the order of these structures, starting from the highest part of the brainstem (the midbrain) and moving downward to the lowest part (the medulla oblongata). When a severe injury or pressure affects the brainstem, it can cause serious and potentially life-threatening complications, including respiratory failure and cardiac arrest. It is important to note that the phrase "high to low pons will blow" is simply a memory aid and should not be used to diagnose or treat any medical condition. If you have concerns about your brainstem function, it is important to seek medical attention from a qualified healthcare professional.
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In this model of the rock cycle, A represents
rock and arrow B represents the process of
.
In this model of the rock cycle, A represents metamorphic rock and arrow B represents the process of weathering.
What is a rock cycle?A rock cycle simply refers to a concept that is used to describe and illustrate the continuous chemical and biological processes that leads to the formation (creation) of a rock, its transformation from one kind to another, its destruction and reformation over a specific period of time.
In Science, some examples of the natural phenomenon that influences rock cycle are;
Plate tectonic activityErosionWeatheringWeathering involves both the physical and chemical breakdown of rock into smaller pieces while metamorphic rock is a type of rock which is formed due to the transformation of an existing rock.
Based on the model in the image attached below, we can infer and logically conclude that item A represents a metamorphic rock while arrow B represents the process of weathering.
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Select the correct answer.
Dr. Smith and Dr. Walters are leading a team in charge of deciding which new MRI equipment to purchase. They are helping build consensus. What
should be obtained when building consensus?
A. a deadline
B. a report
C. a compromise
D. a milestone
E. an option
According to the given statement a report should be obtained when building consensus.
What equipment is used in MRI?Large, magnetized tubes make up the majority of MRI equipment. The magnetic field in an MRI scanner causes your body's water molecules to momentarily rearrange. These aligned atoms emit tiny signals that are utilized to make cross-sectional MRI pictures, which resemble the slices of bread.
What are the MRI's fundamental tenets and equipment?Protons inside the body are forced to align with the magnetic field created by the strong magnets used in MRI machines. The protons are activated and spun out of equilibrium when a microwave current is pulsed through the person, which causes them to struggle against the magnetic field.
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Todd served with the US Army in Afghanistan. One day on patrol, he was injured and lost his left lower leg in an explosion. An orthopedic surgeon performed an amputation. What procedure would Todd have to go through to replace his lost lower leg? After his stump healed, Todd's doctor recommended using a , which is a substitute for a missing body part, such as an arm or a leg removed either by trauma or by surgery.
Answer:
The procedure Todd would have to go through is recovery. Todd’s doctor recommended using a prosthetic leg.
Explanation:
After his stump healed, Todd's doctor recommended using a prosthetic, which is a substitute for a missing body part, such as an arm or a leg removed either by trauma or by surgery.
What is prosthetic?A prosthesis is a manufactured replacement for a lost body component (just one is called a prosthesis and is also often called a prosthetic; the plural is prostheses).
If cancer is diagnosed in a particular bodily part, it may occasionally need to be removed. Hair loss can occasionally happen as a result of medical therapy.
An artificial limb can occasionally replace an absent arm or leg. You can walk, eat, or dress more easily with the use of the device, which is referred to as a prosthesis. You can operate with some artificial limbs almost as well as before.
Osseointegration is a surgical surgery that seeks to provide persons who have undergone an amputation with a higher quality of life, greater function, and improved mobility.
Thus, prosthetic should be done in the given scenario.
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Based on the amount of protein recommended for athletes, how much protein should Paulo consume per day
Answer:
1.2 to 2.0 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day for athletes (depends on their training)
Explanation:
A client's Holter monitor strip reveals a heart rate with normal conduction but with a rate consistently above 105 beats/minute. What type of dysrhythmia would the cardiologist likely diagnose
Answer:
Tachycardia
Explanation:
tachycardia is a SR heart rate >100
A pregnant patient delivers twins at 30 weeks gestation. The first baby is delivered vaginally, but during this delivery, the second baby has turned into the transverse position during labor. The decision is made to perform a cesarean to deliver the second baby. The OB physician who performed the delivery also performed the prenatal care. The standard coding for this is
The standard coding for the delivery of the twin patients is 59409, 59410, and 59510.
The delivery of multiple fetuses is coded as a single unit and not separately when the delivery occurs during the same encounter. When the delivery occurs through cesarean section and with multiple fetuses, code 59510 is used once for the delivery, and the delivery of the additional fetus is coded with 59409 or 59410, depending on the method of delivery for the first fetus. The delivery of the first baby is coded with the appropriate delivery code based on whether it was vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery. The patient was at 30 weeks gestation, which is considered premature birth. A premature birth involves the delivery of the baby before the 37th week of pregnancy.
The standard coding for the premature birth is 644.2x. The xx in the code should be replaced with the appropriate number based on the gestational age of the baby at the time of delivery. For instance, a premature birth that occurs at 30 weeks gestation is coded as 644.20.In conclusion, when a pregnant patient delivers twins at 30 weeks gestation, the appropriate coding for the delivery depends on the method of delivery for each fetus and the gestational age of the fetus at the time of delivery. The standard coding for the delivery is 59409, 59410, and 59510, while the standard coding for the premature birth is 644.2x.
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Mazia has mixed feelings about her job. she enjoys spending time with her coo workers but does not like the pressure her boss puts her under . her attitude to her job is best characterized as a. positive b. negative c. undefined d. ambivalent
Answer:
her attitude about her job is ambivalent.
Explanation:
Ambivalent means mixed feelings.
I agree that when your product makes it through the approval process, Physicians and patients will have more than one medicine to use for their ailment.
The more treatment options you come up with, the more costly it is to produce biosimilar products. Moreover, it becomes more complicated to assimilate them into the reference drug. How are you willing to advise your company on the expensive process of coming up with treatment options?
To manage the expenses associated with developing treatment options, it is essential to carefully evaluate the potential benefits, align with reliable partners, and stay updated with the regulatory landscape.
To advise your company on the expensive process of coming up with treatment options, it is important to consider several factors. Firstly, conducting thorough research and development to identify potential treatment options can be costly. It is crucial to assess the market demand, potential patient benefits, and regulatory requirements for each option before proceeding.
Additionally, the manufacturing process of biosimilar products can be complex and expensive. Ensuring quality and consistency in production requires significant investment in technology, equipment, and expertise. Collaborating with experienced manufacturers and investing in robust quality control systems can help mitigate these challenges.
Moreover, integrating biosimilar products into the reference drug landscape can be a complex task. It involves navigating regulatory pathways, addressing intellectual property considerations, and establishing effective marketing strategies. Engaging with regulatory bodies, collaborating with legal experts, and conducting comprehensive market analysis can facilitate this process.
Additionally, optimizing internal processes and investing in research and development can help drive cost-efficiency while ensuring the availability of multiple treatment options for physicians and patients.
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Divide using a common factor of 3 to find an equivalent fraction for
Explanation: not sure??? I'm studying medicine too haven't come across that yet
Suppose you want to study the relationship between smoking and cancer. You assume that smoking is a cause of cancer. Studies have shown that there are many factors affecting this relationship, such as the number of cigarettes or the amount of tobacco smoked every day; the duration of smoking; the age of the smoker; dietary habits; and the amount of exercise undertaken by the individual. All of these factors may affect the extent to which smoking might cause cancer. These variables may either increase or decrease the magnitude of the relationship. Which statement is false
Answer: in the above example, cancer is an independent variable.
Explanation:
Based on the information given, we can infer that the dependent variable is cancer. Cancer is not the independent variable.
The extent to which an individual smokes is.an independent variable, duration of smoking, smoker's age can all be identified as the independent variable.
Cancer is not a independent variable here, in our study cancer is dependent on the amount of smoking by an individual.So, it is a dependent variable.
Unit Test
Most of the pharmacy standards that apply to pharmacy technicians are grouped into the categories of
a. professional standards, facilities standards, and product storage and distribution standards.
b. quality standards, communication standards, and safety and security standards.
c. quality standards, facilities standards, informational security, product storage, and infection control security.
d. operational security, informational security, equipment security, workplace security, and infection control security.
Please select the best answer provided
Answer:
A. Professional standards, facilities standards, and product storage and distributions standards.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
How should Samra handle the situation with Ms. McConnley?. When Ms. McConnley is ready to check out, she informs Samra that she does not have any cash to pay her $25 copayment. How should Samra respond? When Ms. McConnley is ready to check out, she informs Samra that she does not have any cash to pay her $25 copayment. How should Samra respond? Is it necessary for Samra to make any notations in the patient’s chart?
Answer:
how will she pay later
yes make notations
Samra can respond to the situation by explaining to McConnley the policy of the company about copayment.
What do you mean by the term copayment?A copayment simply means a fixed amount for a covered service that is paid by an individual to the provider of a service before the service is received.
In this case, Ms. McConnley is ready to check out and inform Samra that she does not have any cash to pay her $25 copayment.
Thus, It's important for Samra to explain the company's policy on copayment and remind her that she hasn't paid her.
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A patient takes a lab test, and the result is (positive). A positive result (A) indicates that the patient has a special type of cancer (B). It is known that the test returns a correct positive result with probability P(A I B) = 0.97 and a correct negative result with probability P(A' I B') = 0.95. Furthermore, evidence indicates that 3% of the population in this age group has this type of cancer, such that our prior belief is P(B) = 0.03.
1. Find the probability that a randomly chosen person is tested with result A (positive).
2. Find the probability that a patient with a positive test has the special type of cancer?
The probability of a randomly chosen person testing positive (result A) is 0.0776 or 7.76%. However, the probability that a patient with a positive test result actually has the special type of cancer (probability of having cancer given a positive result) is approximately 0.375 or 37.5%.
1) To find the probability that a randomly chosen person is tested with result A (positive), we need to use the law of total probability.
P(A) = P(A | B) × P(B) + P(A | B') × P(B')
Given:
P(A | B) = 0.97 (probability of a correct positive result given the presence of cancer)
P(B) = 0.03 (prior probability of having the special type of cancer)
P(A | B') = 1 - P(A' | B')
= 1 - 0.95
= 0.05 (probability of a false positive result given the absence of cancer)
P(B') = 1 - P(B)
= 1 - 0.03
= 0.97 (probability of not having the special type of cancer)
Now we can calculate:
P(A) = (0.97 × 0.03) + (0.05 × 0.97)
= 0.0291 + 0.0485
= 0.0776
Therefore, the probability that a randomly chosen person is tested with result A (positive) is 0.0776 or 7.76%.
2) To find the probability that a patient with a positive test has a special type of cancer (probability of having cancer given a positive result), we can use Bayes' theorem.
P(B | A) = (P(A | B) × P(B)) / P(A)
Given:
P(A | B) = 0.97 (probability of a correct positive result given the presence of cancer)
P(B) = 0.03 (prior probability of having the special type of cancer)
P(A) = 0.0776 (probability of testing positive, as calculated in part 1)
Now we can calculate:
P(B | A) = (0.97 × 0.03) / 0.0776
= 0.0291 / 0.0776
≈ 0.375
Therefore, the probability that a patient with a positive test has a special type of cancer is approximately 0.375 or 37.5%.
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A 42-year-old white male was referred to a gastroenterologist by his primary care physician because of a two-month history of gross rectal bleeding. The new patient was seen on Wednesday, and the doctor performed a comprehensive history and exam. Medical decision making was of moderate complexity. The patient was scheduled for a complete diagnostic colonoscopy four days later. The patient was given detailed instructions for the bowel prep that was to be started at home on Friday at 1:00 p. M.
On Friday, the patient was registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (15 minutes) was administered by the physician performing the procedure, and the flexible colonoscopy was started. The examination had to be halted at the splenic flexure because of inadequate bowel preparation. The patient was rescheduled for Monday and given additional instructions for bowel prep to be performed starting at 3:00 p. M. On Sunday.
On Monday, the patient was again registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (30 minutes) was again administered by the physician performing the procedure, and a successful total colonoscopy was performed. Diverticulosis was noted in the ascending colon and two polyps were excised from the descending colon using the snare technique. The pathology report indicated the polyps were benign.
Day of Encounter: Wednesday
Diagnosis Code:
CPT Code:
Day of Encounter: Friday
Diagnosis Codes:
,
CPT Codes:
,
Day of Encounter: Monday
Diagnosis Codes:
,
,
CPT Codes:
,
,
The diagnosis codes and CPT codes for a patient who presented with rectal bleeding and underwent a colonoscopy were provided for three different encounters. These codes included K62.5, Z86.010, K57.30, and K63.52.
Day of Encounter: Wednesday
Diagnosis Code: K62.5 - Hemorrhage of Rectum and Anus
CPT Code: 45378 - Diagnostic Colonoscopy
Day of Encounter: Friday
Diagnosis Codes: K62.5 - Hemorrhage of Rectum and Anus, Z86.010 - Personal history of colonic polyps
CPT Codes: 45378 - Diagnostic Colonoscopy, 99152 - Moderate Conscious Sedation
Day of Encounter: Monday
Diagnosis Codes: K57.30 - Diverticular Disease of Large Intestine Without Perforation or Abscess, K63.5 - Polyp of Colon, Z86.010 - Personal history of colonic polyps
CPT Codes: 45380 - Colonoscopy with Biopsy, single or multiple, 45385 - Colonoscopy with removal of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s) by snare technique, 99152 - Moderate Conscious Sedation
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The correct question is:
A 42-year-old white male was referred to a gastroenterologist by his primary care physician because of a two-month history of gross rectal bleeding. The new patient was seen on Wednesday, and the doctor performed a comprehensive history and exam. Medical decision-making was of moderate complexity. The patient was scheduled for a complete diagnostic colonoscopy four days later. The patient was given detailed instructions for the bowel prep that was to be started at home on Friday at 1:00 p.m.
On Friday, the patient was registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (15 minutes) was administered by the physician performing the procedure, and the flexible colonoscopy was started. The examination had to be halted at the splenic flexure because of inadequate bowel preparation. The patient was rescheduled for Monday and given additional instructions for bowel prep to be performed starting at 3:00 p.m. on Sunday.
On Monday, the patient was again registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (30 minutes) was again administered by the physician performing the procedure, and a successful total colonoscopy was performed. Diverticulosis was noted in the ascending colon and two polyps were excised from the descending colon using the snare technique. The pathology report indicated the polyps were benign.
Day of Encounter: Wednesday
Diagnosis Code: ___________
CPT Code: ______________
Day of Encounter: Friday
Diagnosis Codes: ___________, ___________
CPT Codes: __________, _______________
Day of Encounter: Monday
Diagnosis Codes: ______________, _____________, _____________
CPT Codes: ________________
What is autoimmune arthritis?
Autoimmune arthritis is the disease of bones or joints in which body cells themselves is attacked by the immune system of the body.
Autoimmune arthritis or rheumatoid arthritis is caused due to several factors which may be due to environment, genetics and hormonal imbalance. It affects the life adversely. It causes deformity in bones and bone erosion which makes the body weak and structure decline significantly. Some of the symptoms of this disease are inflammation, stiffness, fatigue, weak bones etc. Though there is no permanent cure available despite the medical advancement, the rate of disease spreading to all parts of the body can be reduced by use of certain prohibiting medications (though it imparts some side effects in the body).
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Which national professional organization is an advocate for physicians and their patients?
Answer:
the American Medical Association or AMA
Explanation:
The physician orders penicillin G procaine 400,000 units IM for syphilis. The medication is supplied in 1,200,000 units/2 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer?
Answer: 0.33ml
Explanation:
What you have: 1,200,000 units/2ml
What you need: 400,000 units/x
1,200,000/2ml x 400,000/x =
400000/1,200,000 = 0.33ml
check answer: 0.33333333 x 1,200,000= 400,000 units
which hep poses the greatest risk to workers because it is more common and more easily transmitted than other bloodborne diseases.
The workers have the great risk to Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and hepatitis C virus (HCV) are three of the most common bloodborne pathogens.
What is a Bloodborne Pathogen?The infectious microorganism which stay a longer period in blood and cause disease in humans are called bloodborne pathogens.
These pathogens are hepatitis B (HBV), hepatitis C (HCV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
The sources of infection include Needlesticks and other sharps-related injuries leads bloodborne pathogens
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) viruses causes infections and liver damage.
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) virus causes HIV/AIDS.
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What is a medical that makes a 16-year-old girl fall asleep in a few minutes and won’t remember what have happened yesterday?
Answer:
amnesia? cause i dont really know for sure
Explanation:
Red blood cells in normal saline (Isotonic solution) can survive while blast and destroy in water. Need an explanation under this statement.