WILL MARK YOU BRAINLYEST if correct .
Select the correct answer.
Consider this equation.
please look at attachment

Answer:

\(\frac{1}{4}\) b²

Step-by-step explanation:

To complete the square

add ( half the coefficient of the x- term)² to x² + bx

x² + 2(\(\frac{1}{2}\) b )x + (\(\frac{1}{2}\) b )²

= x² + bx + \(\frac{1}{4}\) b²

Answer:

Length is 9 feet, width = 4.7 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let L = length and W = the width. Then:

L = 2W - 0.4  also:

LW = 42.3

So L = 42.3/W

Plug this into the first equation:

42.3/W = 2W - 0.4      Multiply thru by W:

42.3 = 2W^2 - 0.4W

2W^2 - 0.4W - 42.3 = 0

W = [0.4 +/- sqrt((-0.4)^2 - 4*2* -42.)) ] / 2*2

W = 4.7.

So L = 42.3 / 4.7

L = 9.

Answer:

4.7 ft= width

9 ft = length

Step-by-step explanation:

Let w = width

2w - .4 = length

A = lw

42.30  = w(2w - .4)

\(42.3 = 2w^{2} - .4w\)

\(2w^{2} -.4w - 42.3 = 0\)

let's remove the decimals by multiplying thru by 10

\(20w^{2} - 4w - 423 = 0\)

(2w + 9)(10w - 47) = 0

2w + 9 = 0    or    10w - 47 = 0

2w = -9     or       10w = 47

w = -9/2 = -4.5     or     w = 47/10 = 4.7

Length cannot be negative, so -4.5 must be ignored

Therefore, w = 4.7 ft= width

                2w - .4 = 2(4.7 -.4) = 9.4 - .4 = 9 ft = length

The solution to the linear equation system of congruence classes is [x] ≡ [6] (mod 7) and [y] ≡ [4] (mod 7).

To solve the given linear equation system of congruence classes, we will use the method of substitution. Let's start by isolating one variable in the first equation. We can rewrite the first equation as [3][x] ≡ [1] - [2][y] (mod 7). Simplifying further, we have [x] ≡ [6] - [4][y] (mod 7).

Now, we substitute this value of [x] into the second equation. We get [5]([6] - [4][y]) + [6][y] ≡ [5] (mod 7). Expanding and simplifying, we have [30] - [20][y] + [6][y] ≡ [5] (mod 7). Combining like terms, we get [12][y] ≡ [35] (mod 7).

To find the solution for [y], we can multiply both sides of the congruence by the modular inverse of [12] modulo 7, which is [5]. Doing so, we obtain [y] ≡ [4] (mod 7).

Finally, we substitute the value of [y] back into the first equation and solve for [x]. Plugging in [y] ≡ [4] (mod 7) into [x] ≡ [6] - [4][y] (mod 7), we get [x] ≡ [6] - [4][4] (mod 7), which simplifies to [x] ≡ [6] - [16] (mod 7).

Further simplifying, we have [x] ≡ [-10] (mod 7). Since [-10] ≡ [4] (mod 7), the solution for [x] is [x] ≡ [4] (mod 7).

the solution to the given linear equation system of congruence classes is [x] ≡ [6] (mod 7) and [y] ≡ [4] (mod 7).

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Given:

• Profit per camera = $186

• Cost of replacing the camera = $3100

• Probability it will be replaced once = 4% = 0.04

• Probability it will be replaced twice = 1% = 0.01

• Probability it will not be replaced = 95% = 0.95

Now, let's determine if the company should expect to make money or lose money from selling the camera.

Let's find the expected cost of repair.

We have:

E = (0.04 x 3100) + (0.01 x 2 x 3100) + (0.95 x 0)

E = 124 + 62 + 0

E = 186

Therefore, the expected cost of repair is $186.

We can see the profit per camera and the expected cost of repair are the same.

Profit per camera = Expected cost of repair

Since they are equal, the company should expect to neither make nor lose money from selling these cameras.

ANSWER:

Brady & Matthew should expect to neither make nor lose money from selling these cameras.

Answer:

247

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

nth term (Tₙ) = 5n – 3

Number of term (n) = 50

50th term (T₅₀) =?

The 50th term can be obtained as follow:

Tₙ = 5n – 3

T₅₀ = 5(50) – 3

T₅₀ = 250 – 3

T₅₀ = 247

Therefore, the 50th term is 247.

Answer: The required product of two given algebraic expressions =15abc +10b²c²

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we need to multiple two algebraic expressions: 3ab+2bc, 5bc

i.e. The required product = (3a+2bc)  x (5bc)

= 3a x 5bc + 2bc x 5bc    [Using right distributive property: (a+b)c= ac+bc]

= (3x 5)  abc + (2 x 5) (bc)²

= 15abc +10b²c²

Therefore, the required product of two given algebraic expressions = 15abc +10b²c²

Answer:

how how how how how how how

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I think it d

The probability that exactly 7 of the captured small monsters are phlogiston subtypes is approximately 0.2083 or 20.83%.

To calculate the probability that exactly 7 of the captured small monsters are phlogiston subtypes, we can use the binomial probability formula. The formula is:

P(X = k) = (n choose k) * p^k * (1 - p)^(n - k)

Where:

- P(X = k) is the probability of exactly k successes,

- n is the number of trials (31 in this case),

- k is the number of successful trials (7 in this case),

- p is the probability of success for each trial (27% or 0.27 for phlogiston subtype),

- (n choose k) is the binomial coefficient, calculated as n! / (k! * (n - k)!)

Let's plug in the values and calculate the probability:

P(X = 7) = (31 choose 7) * (0.27)^7 * (1 - 0.27)^(31 - 7)

Calculating the binomial coefficient:

(31 choose 7) = 31! / (7! * (31 - 7)!)

            = 112,385,013

Now let's calculate the probability:

P(X = 7) ≈ (112,385,013) * (0.27^7) * (0.73^24)

        ≈ 0.2083 (rounded to four decimal places)

Therefore, the probability that exactly 7 of the captured small monsters are phlogiston subtypes is approximately 0.2083 or 20.83%.

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Answer:

you can eat this rasgulla then you will got answer

The factor and levels in the scenario is,

Factor = dip flavor. Levels = strawberry, orange, and banana.

What is popsicles?

A frozen treat on a stick made of liquid is known as an ice pop. An ice pop is "quiescently" frozen, or frozen when at rest, and turns into a solid block of ice, unlike ice cream or sorbet, which are churned while freezing to prevent ice crystal formation. It is held by the stick, which serves as a handle.

There is only one factor (independent variable) involved in above case, i.e. dip flavor is only factor mentioned in given case.

We can see that dip flavor has three categories or levels, i.e. strawberry, orange, and banana

Therefore, we have

factor = dip flavor and levels = strawberry, orange, and banana.

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You should pay approximately $10,117.09 initially to secure the annuity and receive annual payments of $1500 over the 9-year period.

To find the cost of the annuity, we need to calculate the present value of the future payments. The present value represents the current worth of future cash flows, taking into account the interest earned or charged over time. In this case, we'll calculate the present value of the $1500 payments using compound interest.

The formula to calculate the present value of an annuity is:

PV = PMT × [1 - (1 + r)⁻ⁿ] / r

Where:

PV is the present value of the annuity (the amount you should pay initially)

PMT is the payment amount received annually ($1500 in this case)

r is the interest rate per period (6.28% or 0.0628)

n is the total number of periods (9 years)

Let's substitute the values into the formula:

PV = $1500 × [1 - (1 + 0.0628)⁻⁹] / 0.0628

Calculating this expression:

PV = $1500 × [1 - 1.0628⁻⁹] / 0.0628

PV = $1500 × [1 - 0.575255] / 0.0628

PV = $1500 × 0.424745 / 0.0628

PV ≈ $10117.09

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AB is congruent to BC given BE bisects DBC and BE is parallel to AC is proved .

What is congruent ?

Congruent refers to having the same shape and size. In mathematics, two objects are said to be congruent if they are identical in shape and size, and can be superimposed onto one another. The symbol used to represent congruence is ≅. Congruence applies to various geometric objects, such as triangles, rectangles, circles, and more. When two objects are congruent, they have all corresponding angles equal and all corresponding sides equal in length.

Step 1: Statement: \($\angle DBE = \angle EBC$\)

Reason: Given that overline BE bisects \($\angle DBC$\)

Step 2: Statement: \($\angle DBC + \angle EBC = 180^\circ$\)

Reason: Angle sum property of a straight line.

Step 3: Statement: \($\angle ABC + \angle EBC = 180^\circ$\)

Reason: Angles on a straight line sum to \(180^\circ$, and $\overline{BE} || \overline{AC}$\) implies that \(\angle ABC$ and $\angle EBC$\) are co-interior angles.

Step 4: Statement: \($\angle ABC = \angle DBC$\)

Reason: From step 2 and step 3, \($\angle ABC + \angle EBC = \angle DBC + \angle EBC = 180^\circ$\). Thus, \($\angle ABC = \angle DBC$\).

Step 5: Statement: \($\triangle ABE \cong \triangle CBE$\)

Reason: By the angle-angle-side congruence criterion, since \($\angle DBE = \angle EBC$\) (from step 1) and \($\angle ABC = \angle DBC$\) (from step 4), and \($\overline{BE}$\) is common to both triangles.

Step 6: Statement: \($AB = BC$\)

Reason: By step 5, \($\triangle ABE \cong \triangle CBE$\), so corresponding sides are congruent, including \($\overline{AB} \cong \overline{BC}$\).

Therefore, AB is congruent to BC given BE bisects DBC and BE is parallel to AC is proved .

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Box-plot describes 5 important data of the observations. We get following values for range, median and IQR as:

A box plot has 5 data description.

IQR(inter quartile range)  is the dfference between third and first quartile. (Its the horizontal length of the box)

Range = Maximum value of the data set - Minimum value of the dataset

The missing box plot is attached below for the given problem.

From the given data, we see that, the left and right whiskers are on  80 and 100 respectively.

The left and right limit of the box are on 85 and 93 respectively.

The middle line lies on 90.

Thus, we get:

Thus, we get:

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In grade 7, students will encounter mixed fraction addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division word problems.

When adding or subtracting mixed fractions, follow these steps:

Convert the mixed fractions into improper fractions.

Find a common denominator for the fractions involved.

Perform the addition or subtraction operation on the numerators, while keeping the common denominator.

Simplify the resulting fraction, if possible, by reducing it to its simplest form or converting it back to a mixed fraction.

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Step-by-step explanation:

3-2(3x+1)=19

\(3 - 6x - 2 = 19 \\ 1 - 6x = 19 \\ - 6x = 19 - 1 \\ - 6x = 18 \\ x = - 3\)

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

a) 1 = 4 they are corresponding angles when j and k are parallel

b) 3 + 4 = 180 these just lies on same straight line and they add up to 180 so none

c) 5 + 7 = 180 are consecutive interior angles when k and l are parallel

d) 6 = 7 they are alternate interior angles when k and l are parallel

and refer this link for theory on this topic

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Answer:

11÷7=\(\frac{11}{7}\)

v= 11/7

Answer:

M= 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

I know because I'm learning this right now in my AP class.

Answer:

slope = - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

y = \(\frac{1}{5}\) x - 1 ← is in slope- intercept form

with slope m = \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Given a line with slope m then the slope of a line perpendicular to it is

\(m_{vertex}\) = - \(\frac{1}{m}\) = - \(\frac{1}{\frac{1}{5} }\) = - 5

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

A race car with wheels with diameter 66 cm must turn 1,088,000 times to cover a 300 km race. This is because the circumference of a wheel is equal to its diameter multiplied by pi, which is approximately 3.14.

So, the circumference of a 66 cm wheel is 66 * 3.14 = 208.2 cm. To travel 300 km, the car must turn its wheels 300,000 / 208.2 = 1,445 times.

The circumference of a circle is equal to its diameter multiplied by pi, which is approximately 3.14. So, the circumference of a 66 cm wheel is 66 * 3.14 = 208.2 cm. To travel 300 km, the car must turn its wheels 300,000 / 208.2 = 1,445 times.

In other words, the car must turn its wheels 1,445 times to cover the race distance. This is a lot of turns, but it is possible for a Formula 1 car to do this. The cars are designed to be very efficient and to have very low rolling resistance, which means that they can turn their wheels very quickly without losing too much energy.

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To find the curvature of the curve defined by the vector function r(t) = < t^2, ln(t), t ln(t) > at a given point, we need to calculate the curvature using the formula:

κ = |dT/ds| / ||dT/ds||,

where dT/ds is the unit tangent vector and ||dT/ds|| is its magnitude.

Let's proceed with the calculations:

Step 1: Find the first derivative of r(t) to get the tangent vector T(t):

r'(t) = < 2t, 1/t, ln(t) + t/t > = < 2t, 1/t, ln(t) + 1 >.

Step 2: Calculate the magnitude of the tangent vector:

||r'(t)|| = sqrt((2t)^2 + (1/t)^2 + (ln(t) + 1)^2)

         = sqrt(4t^2 + 1/t^2 + ln(t)^2 + 2ln(t) + 1).

Step 3: Differentiate r'(t) to find the second derivative:

r''(t) = < 2, -1/t^2, 1/t + 2/t > = < 2, -1/t^2, (t + 2)/t >.

Step 4: Calculate the magnitude of the second derivative:

||r''(t)|| = sqrt(2^2 + (-1/t^2)^2 + ((t + 2)/t)^2)

          = sqrt(4 + 1/t^4 + (t^2 + 4t + 4)/t^2)

          = sqrt((t^6 + 4t^5 + 4t^4) + (t^2 + 4t + 4) + 4t^2).

Step 5: Calculate the curvature:

κ = |dT/ds| / ||dT/ds||

  = (||r'(t)|| / ||r''(t)||^3)

  = ((sqrt(4t^2 + 1/t^2 + ln(t)^2 + 2ln(t) + 1)) / (sqrt((t^6 + 4t^5 + 4t^4) + (t^2 + 4t + 4) + 4t^2))^3).

To find the curvature at a specific point, substitute the value of t into the expression for κ.

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Answer:

The average rate of change of the function over the given interval is -6

Step-by-step explanation:

The function we want to find its average rate of change is;

F(x) = 17 - x^2

Mathematically, the average rate of change of a function F(x) over an interval (a,b) can be calculated as;

{F(b) - F(a)}/(b-a)

According to this question, a = 1 and b = 5

F(a) = F(1) = 17 -(1)^2 = 17 -1 = 16

F(b) = F(5) = 17 - 5^2 = 17-25 = -8

So making the substitution; we have

(-8)-16/(5-1) = -24/4 = -6

Answer:

A: -6

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct statement is a) The line integral of B⋅ds around any closed path equals μ0I, where I is the total steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path.

The correct option is a) The line integral of B⋅ds around any closed path equals μ0I, where I is the total steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path.

Ampere's law is one of the fundamental equations in electromagnetism and relates the magnetic field B to the electric current I. It states that the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed path is equal to the permeability of free space (μ0) times the total steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path.

Option b) is incorrect because Ampere's law does not state that the line integral of B⋅ds around any closed path equals zero. It relates it to the current passing through the surface.

Option c) is also incorrect because Ampere's law does not directly address the net magnetic flux through a closed surface. It specifically relates the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed path to the current passing through the surface.

Option d) is incorrect because the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is not equal to μ0. The net magnetic flux through a closed surface depends on the distribution of magnetic field lines and the characteristics of the surface.

Therefore, the correct statement is a) The line integral of B⋅ds around any closed path equals μ0I, where I is the total steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path.

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Answer:

A. 50.24

Step-by-step explanation:

f(4) = 3.14 times 4²

f(4) = 3.14(16)

f(4) = 50.24

Answer:

-14

Step-by-step explanation:

4n - 6 , n= -2

= 4* (-2) - 6

= -8 -6

= - 14