compression stocking compliance does not impact reintervention or symptom change after iliac vein stenting in patients with moderate to severe lower extremity edema:
Medical compression stocking (MCS) therapy continues to be the mainstay of treatment for chronic venous disease, especially in patients with leg edema. This study evaluated the impact of postoperative MCS adherence in moderate-to-severe edema patients undergoing iliac vein stenting (IVS). METHODS:
Patients from a large tertiary care center who underwent IVS between August 2011 and June 2021 were analyzed. Symptoms were quantified using the Venous Clinical Severity Score (VCSS) and the Clinical Assessment Score (CAS). Inclusion criteria were moderate or severe lower extremity edema during IVS.
Patients were stratified into two cohorts: full adherence to postoperative compression therapy (MCS+) and no use of postoperative compression therapy (MCS-). RESULTS: Of her 376 patients who met study criteria, we identified 168 MCS+ patients and her 208 MCS patients. VCSS edema scores did not differ significantly between groups (p = 0.179).
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Does drinking water make a sore throat worse? Explain.
What home remedies can help ease a sore throat?
A nurse is planning care for a client who has multiple wounds. During the initial stage of woundhealing. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A nurse who is planning care for a client who happens to have a multiple wounds. Then, during the initial stage of wound healing, the nurse should apply oxygen at 2 L/min through nasal cannula.
The correct option is option d.
A casualty can have multiple wounds as a result of an accident or any other harm. After an acute injury, the body is able to respond best by increasing the oxygen in order to improve perfusion, which is very crucial in the process of healing.
It is very common to observe a delay in the resolution of inflammatory phase of the chronic wounds in the clients who have a deficiency of oxygen or have a poor perfusion. Enough amount of oxygen can be provided to the client by applying oxygen at 2 L/min using a nasal cannula.
--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"A nurse is planning care for a client who has multiple wounds. During the initial stage of wound healing, which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Leave nonbleeding wounds open to the air.
b. Administer a corticosteroid medication.
c. Initiate mechanical debridement.
d. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula"--
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The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client with a diagnosis of leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the client's platelet count is 20,000 mm3 (200 × 109/L). The nurse should prepare to implement which action based on this finding?
The nurse should prepare to implement appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding in the client, since a platelet count of 20,000 mm3 (200 × 109/L) indicates severe thrombocytopenia.
This may include monitoring the client for signs of bleeding, administering platelet transfusions, and adjusting the client's chemotherapy regimen as needed. It is important for the nurse to work closely with the healthcare team to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
Based on the finding that the client's platelet count is 20,000 mm3 (200 × 109/L), the nurse should prepare to implement precautions to minimize bleeding risk, as this platelet count is significantly lower than the normal range. This may include avoiding invasive procedures, monitoring for signs of bleeding, and providing a safe environment for the client.
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Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
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which of the following is a common obstacle that keeps soldiers from receiving mental health assistance?
the fact that higher ranking personnel look down upon it.
the army goes rolling along
wearing the maroon beret
Fear in combat is not common
One common obstacle that keeps soldiers from receiving mental health assistance is the perception that higher-ranking personnel may look down upon it.
This can create a stigma around mental health care within the military, discouraging soldiers from seeking help when they need it. The fear of being seen as weak or unfit for duty can be a significant barrier to accessing necessary mental health support.
It is important to remember that experiencing fear in combat is not uncommon, and seeking help for mental health concerns does not indicate a lack of resilience or capability. In fact, addressing mental health issues can improve a soldier's overall well-being and performance. Efforts to educate military personnel and reduce stigma surrounding mental health care are crucial in ensuring soldiers receive the assistance they need.
Please note that "the army goes rolling along" and "wearing the maroon beret" are not directly relevant to the topic of mental health obstacles in the military. However, they can serve as reminders of the strong camaraderie and pride among soldiers, which can be powerful motivators for fostering a more supportive environment for mental health care.
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What is the maximum temperature deli meats should be
stored at?
Answer:
40 degrees Fahrenheit
Explanation:
Ms. Hougland is scheduled for an outpatient procedure. You have obtained a precertification number for the
procedure. What purpose does a precertification number serve?
Allows the doctor to perform the procedure.
Allows the doctor to bill for the procedure.
Guarantees reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure.
Requires the patient to pay for the service.
Answer:
allows the doctor to pay the bill for the procedure.
Explanation:
he makes sure that the patient had the insurance before the procedure
The purpose that the precertification number serve is to guarantee reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure
The main function of the precertification number is that there are some scenarios whereby the providers will have to contact the insurer of the patient and they'll then get a precertification number which will be enable the hospital or the doctor to be reimbursed by the insurance company later.Without the precertification number, the provider won't be reimbursed.In conclusion, the correct option is C.
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In a classic medical case study, it was written that phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. While this account appears to have been vastly overstated, because of this story, these functions were associated with damage to which part of the brain?.
In a classic medical case study, it was written that Phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. Much of the brain damage will occur in the frontal lobes.
The human brain consists of three elementary parts: Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.
The predominant purpose of 3 major parts of the brain is to maintain coordination, processing, integration, and other functions of the body.
The forebrain is composed of two major parts called frontal lobes and temporal lobes and its function is associated with problem-solving, impulsive control, memory, social behavior, and non-verbal abilities as well.
Frontal lobes are nearly involved in all types of behavior and are more vulnerable to injuries and traumatic accidents. A severe head injury can cause memory loss and behavioral issues.
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Enulose 10g/15mL Sig: 2 tbsp po bid x 3d - how many ml is the patient taking per day?
The volume of the medication in mL the patient is taking per day is 90 mL.
What does the expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d mean?The above expression is a dosage of the medication.
The expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d means that 2 tablespoonfuls of the medication are to be taken by mouth 3 times daily.
The volume of 1 tablespoonful in mL = 15 ml
The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL will be 15 ml * 2
The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL = 30 mL
The medication is to be taken 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily
The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 30 mL * 3
The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 90 mL
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Are religious people "better" than non-religious people? Why/Why not?
The outcomes of social science study on the subject are fascinating. Religious people claim to be more altruistic, empathetic, honest, civic, and philanthropic than nonreligious persons when researchers ask them to reflect on their own behaviors and attitudes.
Answer:
No They are not better
Explanation:
Every person is equal. Just because someone believes in something doesnt make them any better to someone who isnt religious.
Which of the following statements is WRONG about performing chest
compressions? *
Allow the chest to completely rise back up after a chest compression
Press down at least 6 inches in adults
Position yourself at the victim's side
Keep interruptions to a minimum
Corporate compliance programs help an organization: (Click on all that apply).
Prevent violations of the law
Detect violations of the law
O Correct violations of the law
O Retaliate against reporters
Answer: Correct violation of the law
Tomorrow i have an endocrine system exam, can anyone please help me with it ?? I really need help, plus I couldn’t study because of personal issues, i would really appreciate it.
The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the.
it is the clavicle bone...............
a client is admitted to the hospital for major surgery. the or nurse is explaining major routes of applying local anesthesia to the client. which routes should be included in the teaching?
A client is admitted to the hospital for major surgery. The nurse while explaining the major routes of applying local anesthesia to the client admitted to the hospital for major surgery, the nurse should include instructions for applying local anesthesia via infiltration, subcutaneous, and intramuscular injection.
How is local anesthesia infiltration performed?
Do not percutaneously insert the needle; instead, place it directly into the exposed subdermal layer of the wound edge and advance it to the hub.Before injecting the anesthesia gently and pulling the needle out of the body, aspirate to rule out the intravascular insertion. Field block technique is a term used to describe an administration method where the local anesthetic is injected subcutaneously in a circular pattern around the surgical site.To learn more about local anesthesia, follow the link https://brainly.com/question/14328780
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How many milliliter of U- 100 should be used to obtain 50 units of insuline?
1. In what school-related situations would inattentional blindness likely cause problems? Describe
the situation.
Answer:
The term "inattentional blindness" was first coined by psychologists Arien Mack, Ph.D., and Irvin Rock, Ph.D., who observed the phenomenon during their perception and attention experiments. "Because this inability to perceive, this sighted blindness, seemed to be caused by the fact that subjects were not attending to the stimulus but instead were attending to something else.
Explanation:
You believe you are paying attention to the road, but you miss the automobile swerving into your lane of traffic because you were distracted, which leads to a collision.
What Is Inattentional Blindness?
When a person fails to perceive an obvious but unexpected visual stimulation in their field of vision, they are said to be inattentional blind (Simons & Chabris, 1999).
This momentary unawareness is probably caused by the plethora of visual stimuli that demand attention.
When a child is focused on an object or an event, they typically miss out on other information. Inattentional blindness is the name for this frequent occurrence.
We used a motion task to investigate the developmental variation of inattentional blindness and to investigate the age-related degree of these phenomena.
Therefore, high mental work load likely cause problems.
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why is my hair falling out'
Answer:
Most likely from Cemo or something but please don't ask these kind of questions on a homework site lol. Not trying to be mean, okay? I am just letting you know for next time:)
the nurse knows one effective strategy to assist with health literacy is to
The nurse knows one effective strategy to assist with health literacy is to use plain language.
Health literacy is defined as the degree to which individuals can access, understand, and use health information to make informed decisions about their health. Using plain language is a simple and effective approach to improving health literacy.What is plain language?Plain language is a style of writing that emphasizes clarity, simplicity, and ease of comprehension. Using plain language improves the ability of patients and caregivers to access, comprehend, and use health information. Plain language is necessary for health literacy because it ensures that health information is presented in a way that can be easily understood and applied by patients.
How does plain language help to improve health literacy?
Using plain language improves health literacy in a number of ways, including:
Improving comprehension: Using plain language helps people understand medical concepts and information. This can help them to better understand the care they are receiving, adhere to treatment plans, and take a more active role in their own health care.
Increasing engagement: When people understand the information that is being presented to them, they are more likely to become engaged in their care. This can lead to better health outcomes, higher satisfaction with care, and lower healthcare costs.
Reducing errors: When information is presented in a clear, concise, and accurate manner, there is less room for error. This can lead to improved patient safety and better health outcomes.
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Many online PHRs are also available as
Answer:
Yes, there are two main kinds of personal health records (PHRs).
Standalone Personal Health Records: With a standalone PHR, patients fill in information from their own records, and the information is stored on patients' computers or the Internet. In some cases, a standalone PHR can also accept data from external sources, including providers and laboratories. With a standalone PHR, patients could add diet or exercise information to track progress over time. Patients can decide whether to share the information with providers, family members, or anyone else involved in their care.
Tethered/Connected Personal Health Records: A tethered, or connected, PHR is linked to a specific health care organization's electronic health record (EHR) system or to a health plan's information system. With a tethered PHR, patients can access their own records through a secure portal and see, for example, the trend of their lab results over the last year, their immunization history, or due dates for screenings.
Explanation:
Answer:
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Wat are the Vaccines Recommended and listed indications for Adults with HIV?
Vaccines recommended for adults with HIV include pneumococcal, influenza, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccines. Other vaccines may be recommended based on individual circumstances.
The following vaccines are recommended for adults with HIV:
Influenza vaccine: Recommended annually for all adults with HIV.
Pneumococcal vaccine: Recommended for all adults with HIV, with a primary dose followed by a booster at least five years later.
Hepatitis B vaccine: Recommended for all adults with HIV who are not already immune to hepatitis B.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine: Recommended for men and women up to age 26 who have not been previously vaccinated.
Meningococcal vaccine: Recommended for adults with HIV who have low CD4 cell counts or other risk factors for meningococcal disease.
Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine: Recommended for all adults with HIV who have not received a dose of Tdap in adulthood.
It is important for adults with HIV to receive these vaccines to prevent opportunistic infections and other illnesses that can further compromise their health.
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With CPT codes changing each year, why is it important that the medical office obtain a new code book each year? What are the dangers of not obtaining this book? Why should coding books for the two previous years be kept?
Answer:
A new code book needs to be obtained each year to accurately identify all patient care accurately. ... Having two previous years' books on hand is important during an audit to understand the CPT codes entered into each patient's record during that time.
A new code book needs to be obtained each year to accurately identify all patient care accurately.
What is CPT codes?Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) exists as a medical code set that exists utilized to report medical, surgical, and diagnostic techniques and services to entities such as physicians, health insurance companies, and accreditation institutions.
A CPT code exists as a 5-digit numeric code that is utilized to represent Medical, surgical, Radiology, Laboratory, anesthesiology, and evaluation management Services of Physicians hospitals, and other care providers. there exist approximately 7,800 CPT codes. Including two previous years' books on hand exists significant during an audit to understand the CPT codes entered into each patient's record during that time.
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Create injury 10-12 response cards, simple electronic index cards that describe the symptoms of common injuries and basic first aid procedures.
Answer:
Ouch! I Just Tripped and Rolled Over My Ankle
If you’re still able to walk, albeit a bit uncomfortably, then relax: It’s not a fracture but simply a sprain. That means a ligament has been stretched or, in more severe cases, torn. About 65 to 75 percent of ankle injuries fall into this category, says David A. Porter, M.D., Ph.D., an orthopedic foot and ankle surgeon at Methodist Sports Medicine, in Indianapolis. Reduce any swelling as soon as possible with RICE: rest, ice, compression, and elevation (recline on a chair and raise your ankle to above hip level). Ice in 10- to 20-minute intervals, with 10-minute breaks in between, for a few hours. Continue RICE intermittently (or whenever you feel pain) for the next few days, and wear only sneakers. The soreness and swelling should go away within a week or at most four weeks. (During this time, the doctor may send you for physical therapy.) If your ankle swells dramatically within the first hour after the injury (for instance, it may look as if a golf ball—size lump is lodged under your skin, or the entire ankle area may be puffy and purple) and you find it almost impossible to walk, you may have a more serious sprain or fracture. See your doctor within 48 hours. He may prescribe physical therapy and outfit you with a walking boot or a brace or, in the case of a broken bone, recommend surgery or a cast.
during the past two weeks, jennifer has has noticed that her coworker, maryn, has been making some charting errors. jennifer is very concerned about patient car and does not want any of the patients to suffer because of these errors. who should Jennifer talk with about her concerns?
The person Jennifer should talk with about her coworker, Maryn, who has been making some charting errors for the past two weeks is her supervisor or Maryn herself.
This is because if she talks with Maryn who has been making the charting errors, she can determine what is causing the errors and how best to fix them.
However, since this is a delicate matter and involves patient health, she should talk to her supervisor about it,.
What is Health Care?This refers to the treatment and medication given to patients by medical professionals to nurse them to full recovery.
Hence, we can see that The person Jennifer should talk with about her coworker, Maryn, who has been making some charting errors for the past two weeks is her supervisor or Maryn herself.
This is because if she talks with Maryn who has been making the charting errors, she can determine what is causing the errors and how best to fix them.
However, since this is a delicate matter and involves patient health, she should talk to her supervisor about it,.
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John milked cows by hand each morning before school. One morning, he overslept and had to hurry to get to school on time. While he was milking the cows as fast as he could, his hands became very tired, and then for a short time he could neither release his grip nor squeeze harder. Explain what happened.
A 22 pound child is ordered a medication to be given at 0.3 mg/kg. This child weighs (now on ___ kg
The medication dosage that needs to be given to the 22-pound child who weighs 10 kg is 3 mg.
The given information that can be used to solve the problem is:
A 22 pound child is ordered a medication to be given at 0.3 mg/kg.
The first step in solving the problem is to convert the weight of the child from pounds to kilograms.1 lb = 0.453592 kg
Therefore, the child weighs:
22 lb × 0.453592 kg/lb ≈ 10 kg
Using the given information that the medication dosage is 0.3 mg/kg,
the medication dosage that the child needs to be given can be calculated as follows
:Dosage = 0.3 mg/kg × 10 kg = 3 mg
Therefore, the medication dosage that needs to be given to the 22-pound child who weighs 10 kg is 3 mg.
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In terms of chemical digestion of organic molecules, the stomach mainly digests __________.
Protein
Explanation:
Protein food help you
the pesticides cause mutations which leads to pesticide resistance.
Yes, that is correct. Pesticides, particularly those with specific modes of action, can contribute to the development of pesticide resistance in target pests.
Pesticides work by targeting certain biological processes or structures in pests, effectively controlling or killing them. However, some pests possess genetic variations that make them less susceptible to the effects of the pesticide.
When these resistant individuals survive and reproduce, their offspring inherit the resistance trait, leading to an increase in the resistant pest population over time.
Mutations play a crucial role in the development of pesticide resistance. Random mutations occur naturally in the genetic material of organisms, including pests.
If a mutation alters a pest's physiology or biochemistry in a way that allows it to survive exposure to a particular pesticide, it gains a selective advantage over susceptible individuals.
This resistant phenotype can then spread throughout the population, reducing the effectiveness of the pesticide.
Therefore, the occurrence of mutations is a significant factor in the development of pesticide resistance, which poses challenges for pest management and requires the implementation of integrated pest management strategies to mitigate resistance development.
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When 1-year-old Amanda feels hungry, she begins to cry. She is in Piaget's
stage.
A. preoperational
B. concrete operations
C. sensorimotor
D. formal operations
Amanda begins to cry due to hunger. It is the sensorimotor stage in Piaget's stage. Hence option C is correct.
What are Piaget's stages?A theory on the stages of typical intellectual growth from infancy through adulthood includes Piaget's stages of development. This encompasses knowledge, judgment, and thought. The significance of schemas in cognitive development was underlined by Piaget, who also discussed how they were created or acquired.
The four phases of cognitive (or intellectual) development identified by Piaget are:
Sensorimotor stage (0–2 years old)Preoperational stage (2–7 years old)Concrete operational stage (7–11 years old)Formal operational stage (11 years old through adulthood)Amanda is one year old. Therefore, option C is correct.
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A stage of sleep characterized by almost pure delta waves, and our most restful sleep...
A. Stage I
B. Stage III
C. Stage IV
D. Stage V (REM)
Answer:
Stage III
Explanation:
Not stage 1, as you can wake up easily once you enter it
Not stage 2, as you're preparing for deep sleep
Stage 3, this is your deep sleep, your body repairs tissues at this stage
Not Rem, as rem fastens your heartbeat, you're brain is also very active in the rem stage