Answer:
hives, itching, skin rash, and shortness of breath
Explanation:
signs of allergic reaction
A nurse is taking care of a client diagnosed with norovirus. Which of the following statements made by the client suggests that the client is UNAWARE of the proper preventative procedures?
Answer:
Im sorry, im not sure, but mabye they dont know about all the vacines and or natrual supplements they can take in order to make it better. (instead of going to a hospital)
and so; as soon as they got sick, they didnt know what to do
hope you have a nice day! please mark brainliest!
Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing
safety standards in the workplace?
FDA
OSHA
EPA
How do u eat jumbo jalapenos ? ouuu
A 56 year old woman with Left extremity weakness
A 56 year old woman with a past medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with left extremity weakness.
The condition initially began in January with weakness in her left foot and ankle. This remained stable until motor vehicle accident in April. The patient was evaluated for whiplash injury.
Two to three weeks following the accident, the patient noticed that the weakness had progressed up the leg.
As of July, the patient had developed weakness of the left hand.
By October, the patient had started to use a walker and then a wheelchair to ambulate.
In December, the patient was unable to grasp objects with her left hand and presented with atrophy of the hand muscles
Review of Pertinent Symptoms
No bulbar symptoms
No sensory loss
No neck pain
No bowel/bladder dysfunction
Chronic lower back pain
Localize neurologic lesions
Cortex/subcortex
Brainstem
Spinal cord
Peripheral Nerve
neuromucular Junction
Muscle
Physical Exam
Mental status intact
Cranial nerves (CNS) Intact
Motor Function
Strength
Left upper extremity 3/5 strength, except 2/5 strength in the dorsal interossei
Left lower extremity 3+/5 strength to all muscle groups tested
Right upper extremity/right lower extremity 5/5 strength.
Bulk significant atrophy in the left hand
Reflexes 3+ throghout
Sensation: intact throughout
Fasciulations within the left arm in the multiple muscle groups and less frequently in the right arm
The patient has typical Combined UMN and LMN disease findings
Rule out Mimics
Creatine kinase: 53
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C- reactive protein WNL
Antinuclear antibodies: negative
Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 1:2
Serum protein electrophoresis without M spike
Free light chains WNL
Rapid plasma reagin RPR was Negative
Vitamin B12 level WNL (533 pg/mL)
Copper level WNL (119 mcg/dL)
Negative for Lyme disease test
Vitamin E WNL
Human Immunodeficiency virus HIV was negative
Electromyography (EMG) Nerve Conduction Velocity
Consistent with Motor neuron disease
Left median motor and ulnar motor responses revealed low amplitude
All sensory nerve studies were intact with normal values
Needle EMG showed abnormal spontaneous activity with obvious neurogenic pattern on activation in all four extremities
Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Based on the patient's clinical history, physical examination findings, and diagnostic tests, the most likely diagnosis for this 56-year-old woman with left extremity weakness is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as motor neuron disease.
What is ALS?ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations in the muscles. The patient's symptoms of weakness initially starting in the left foot and ankle, and then progressing up the leg and involving the left hand, along with the atrophy of hand muscles and abnormal findings on electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction velocity testing, are consistent with the diagnosis of ALS.
Other potential mimics of motor neuron disease have been ruled out through laboratory tests and imaging studies, and the patient's clinical presentation is characteristic of combined upper motor neuron (UMN) and lower motor neuron (LMN) involvement, which is typical of ALS. Further evaluation and management should be done by a neurologist specializing in motor neuron diseases.
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if the bod5 value for two wastewater samples is the same at 8500 mg/l, but their k values are 0.2 day−1 and 0.4 day−1, what is the ultimate bod for each sample?
The ultimate BOD for the first sample with a k value of 0.2 day-1 is 42500 mg/L, and the ultimate BOD for the second sample with a k value of 0.4 day-1 is 21250 mg/L.
To calculate the ultimate BOD for each sample, we can use the following formula:
Ultimate BOD = BOD5 / k
where BOD5 is the five-day biochemical oxygen demand and k is the rate constant.
For the first wastewater sample with a k value of 0.2 day−1 and BOD5 value of 8500 mg/L, the ultimate BOD can be calculated as:
Ultimate BOD = 8500 mg/L / 0.2 day−1 = 42,500 mg/L
For the second wastewater sample with a k value of 0.4 day−1 and BOD5 value of 8500 mg/L, the ultimate BOD can be calculated as:
Ultimate BOD = 8500 mg/L / 0.4 day−1 = 21,250 mg/L
Therefore, the ultimate BOD for the first sample is 42,500 mg/L, and for the second sample, it is 21,250 mg/L.
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You can change your mind but can you change your brain? Why or why not?
A 1-day-old newborn is being examined by the nurse practitioner, who makes the following notation: face and sclera appear mildly jaundiced. What causes this finding?
The breakdown of RBCs release bilirubin, which the liver cannot excrete.
The newborn's Vitamin K levels are low.
The GI tract is immature, so the bilirubin remains in the intestines.
Feedings are not adequate to eliminate the build-up of bilirubin.
The finding of mild jaundice in a 1-day-old newborn is caused by the breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs) that release bilirubin, which the liver cannot excrete. Bilirubin builds up in the bloodstream and causes the yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera (the white part of the eyes), which can be used as a symptom to identify as jaundice by the nurse.
What is Jaundice? Jaundice is a medical condition characterized by yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera (the white part of the eyes) caused by the buildup of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a waste product produced by the breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs).Jaundice is a common condition in newborns and can occur within 2-3 days after birth. It is usually mild and goes away on its own without any treatment. However, severe jaundice can cause serious complications and requires medical attention. What is a Nurse? A nurse is a healthcare professional who is trained to provide care to patients in hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare settings. Nurses are responsible for monitoring the patient's condition, administering medications and treatments, providing emotional support, and educating patients and their families about their health conditions.
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When preparing the room for an infant with bronchiolitis, which equipment is most important?
A tracheostomy set
IV atb
A metered dose inhaler
Oxygen tubing and face mask
When preparing the room for an infant with bronchiolitis, the most important equipment is oxygen tubing and a face mask.
Bronchiolitis is a respiratory condition that affects infants and young children and is characterized by inflammation and congestion of the small airways in the lungs. The condition is most often caused by a viral infection, usually the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
It is a common condition in children under the age of two. Infants and young children are more likely to develop bronchiolitis as their airways are narrower and less able to cope with inflammation and mucus build-up. In bronchiolitis, the inflammation and mucus buildup can cause wheezing and difficulty breathing. In infants with bronchiolitis, the most important equipment when preparing the room is oxygen tubing and a face mask.
This is because these children often experience difficulty breathing, and oxygen support may be necessary to help them breathe more easily. Oxygen therapy with a face mask is typically the first line of treatment for children with bronchiolitis who have difficulty breathing. This treatment may be administered in the hospital or at home, depending on the severity of the child's condition.
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Research projects, such as a drug trial, are a part of which type of care?
A. Secondary care
B. Private industry
C. Capitation
D. Quaternary care
Describe three (3) ways that you can make sure you understand what your boss is asking for in his/her email or memo?
Janice is in the hospital, her IV infiltrated ( fluid got under the skin), she developed a bacterial infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. What bacterial infection does she have?
a. cellulicular acne
b. cellulitis
c. cellulitis rosacea
d. cellulitis vulgaris
rosa is on a high-protein diet. which recommendation is most appropriate for her?
Rosa is on a high-protein diet. Drink plenty of water recommendation is most appropriate for her.
You lose weight quickly when you cut out carbohydrates because you lose fluids. Once the body has run out of further carbohydrates, it starts burning more fat for energy. This may result in ketosis, which can make it simpler to lose weight because you won't feel as hungry. Some people who are in ketosis may have brief headaches, irritability, nausea, poor breath, and sleeping issues.Can you lose weight while eating cheese, bacon, steak, and hamburgers Atkins and Zone-style high-protein, low-carb diets can be successful. But before you choose to try one, weigh the benefits and drawbacks.
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Kayla Christianson, CMA, has been employed six years by the cardiology practice of three physicians. She is a graduate of a CAAHEP-accredited school. Furthermore, Kayla received extensive hands-on training performing ECGs while doing her required externship.
Kayla has completed an ECG ordered by Dr. Hsu for Mrs. Warner, a 76-year-old patient. Dr. Hsu, Kayla’s boss, telephoned her explaining that he was behind schedule doing rounds at the hospital. He asked her to do him a favor and interpret Mrs. Warner’s ECG, sign his name, and fax the report to Mrs. Warner’s referring internist, who is expecting the results.
Given the scope of Kayla’s education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, would this “favor” fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities?
Would any portion of Dr. Hsu’s request fall within the guidelines? If so, which portion(s)? Is an exception to these guidelines ever allowed?
How should Kayla respond to Dr. Hsu?
As far as the scope of Kayla’s education is concerned, the favour that was asked for doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
The only portion of Dr. Hsu's request that fell within the guidelines is asking for assistance to fax the report.
It would therefore be wise if Kayla to decline the request made by Dr Hsu.
What is Electrocardiography (ECG)?Electrocardiography (ECG) is defined as the type of diagnostic services that is used to detect and observe the beating of the heart for any abnormal sounds.
As a Certified Medical Assistants (CMA), Kayla is not allowed to perform delicate procedures such as the electrocardiography procedure but they are allowed to assist the physician on duty for the procedure.
Therefore, given the scope of Kayla’s education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, this favour doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
This means that she should decline the request of the doctor and suggest ways that Mrs Warmer can be attended to without implications.
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From the information provided, it should be noted that CMA guidelines, as stipulated by the American Association of Physician Assistants, prohibit the CMA from interpreting patient medical data. Therefore, the favor that was asked by Dr. Kayla Hsu is simply against guidelines.
What is the AAMA code of ethics?AAMA Code of Ethics for Medical Assistants | The AAMA Code of Ethics for medical assistants sets forth principles of ethical and moral conduct as they relate to the medical profession and the particular practice of medical assisting.
What does AAMA mean in medical terms?The Certified Medical Assistant CMA (AAMA) or (AAMA) —credential is a medical assistant who has been credentialed through the Certifying Board (CB) of the AAMA. The credential is awarded to candidates who pass the CMA Certification Exam.
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The faculty member tells the nursing student to obtain an IV microdrip tubing set. What is the drop factor on an IV microdrip
The term "tubing set" refers to a device that transports fluids. IV microdrip tubing set is used to administer small amounts of IV fluids accurately. It has a drop factor of 60.
This means that there are 60 drops in one milliliter of fluid. The number of drops per minute is directly proportional to the flow rate of the IV fluid. If the flow rate increases, the number of drops per minute also increases to provide accurate administration of small amounts of fluid. The tubing set is designed to regulate the amount of fluid entering the patient's bloodstream. The IV microdrip tubing set has a specialized system that allows the nurse to control the flow of fluid by adjusting the roller clamp. The roller clamp is the device that regulates the flow rate of the IV fluid. The roller clamp is used to control the rate of flow of the IV fluid, which can range from very slow to very fast, depending on the patient's needs. The roller clamp can be used to increase or decrease the flow rate, depending on the patient's response to the IV fluid and the rate of infusion needed to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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What priority interventions should the nurse take for a post-turp client, when urine output is less then input?.
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Why antihistamine drugs like suprastin do not block the stimulatory effect of
histamine on these stomach cells
Claritin (loratadine) is an antihistamine used to treat allergy symptoms. Claritin blocks the action of histamine, a substance in the body that initiates allergic symptoms like itching, sneezing, runny nose, and allergic skin rashes. Claritin is available as a generic drug. Claritin interact with different drugs. Benadryl may interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), other over-the-counter cough, cold, allergy, or insomnia medications, anxiety or sleep medicines, antidepressants, or any other medications that make you feel drowsy, sleepy, or relaxed.
Claritin may interact with certain antibiotics, antifungal medications, and acid-reducing drugs.
your patient returns to your office for a follow up for non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (niddm). her hga1c in the office is 6.4%. she is concerned about developing kidney disease from her diabetes and requests that you test her for this. what initial screening test should you order that would provide clues to potential diabetic nephropathy allowing for treatment to slow the disease progression?
The initial screening test that should be ordered to assess for potential diabetic nephropathy in a patient with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) is a urine microalbumin test.
Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys. It is characterized by the presence of elevated levels of albumin (a type of protein) in the urine, known as microalbuminuria. Early detection of microalbuminuria is crucial as it allows for intervention and treatment to slow the progression of kidney disease.
The urine microalbumin test is a simple and non-invasive screening test used to assess kidney function in patients with diabetes. It measures the amount of albumin excreted in the urine over a specific period. The American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommends annual screening for microalbuminuria in patients with diabetes.
If the urine microalbumin test reveals increased levels of albumin in the urine, it indicates the presence of diabetic nephropathy and the need for further evaluation and management to prevent or delay kidney damage. Timely intervention, including blood pressure control, glycemic control, and medications such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), can help slow the progression of diabetic nephropathy.
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what causes an appendix to rapture??
Answer:
A blockage in the lining of the appendix that results in infection is the likely cause of appendicitis. The bacteria multiply rapidly, causing the appendix to become inflamed, swollen and filled with pus. If not treated promptly, the appendix can rupture
Explanation:
mark me main brainliest plizz:)
78-year old woman with a history of hypertension, aortic thoracic graft, and esophageal reflux disease complained of fever (100 o ) and weakness. She had been treated 3 weeks before at the hospital for a urinary tract infection. She was admitted to the hospital for a diagnostic workup and transfusion. Her laboratory results are listed below:
Na+ 129 mmol/L Hct 25.6%
K+ 3.7 mmol/L Hgb 8.5 g/dL
Cl- 97 mmol/L WBC 9,700
CO2 19 mmol/L
BUN 52 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.2 mg/dL
Urine culture was positive for Citrobacter.
Urinalysis results are listed:
Color Hazy/yellow
Specific gravity 1.015
pH 5
Blood Large
Protein 2
Glucose Negative
Ketones Negative
Nitrates Negative
RBC >25
WBC 1–4
Casts Granular, 1–4
The patient’s renal function continued to decline, and she was put on hemodialysis. A renal biopsy was performed that showed end-stage crescentic glomerulonephritis. Two days later, the patient sustained a perforated duodenal ulcer, which required surgery and blood transfusion. Subsequently, she developed coagulopathy and liver failure. Her condition continued to deteriorate in the next few days, and she died following removal of life support.
1. Looking at the urinalysis, what is the significance of the results of 2+ protein and >25 RBCs?
2. What is the most likely cause of glomerulonephritis?
3. Why was the patient put on hemodialysis?
The theory of aging that posits that aging is caused either by the accumulation of deleterious mutations later in life or by a trade-off between repair to damaged tissues and reproduction is called the _____.
The theory that states that aging is caused either by the accumulation of deleterious mutations later in life or by a trade-off between repair to damaged tissues and reproduction is called the Evolutionary Theory of Aging.
According to this theory, aging is a consequence of evolutionary trade-offs that occur between investing resources into growth, reproduction, and maintenance. This theory suggests that aging is a result of natural selection, which favors traits that increase an organism's fitness and reproductive success during its early life, but not necessarily later in life.
One example of this trade-off is the allocation of resources between reproduction and somatic maintenance. In many organisms, the reproductive effort is highest early in life, and the allocation of resources to somatic maintenance declines as individual ages. This can lead to a decline in the effectiveness of repair and maintenance mechanisms, which increases the likelihood of age-related diseases and death.
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if the parathyroid glands give the human brain to control the intake of calcium within the human body, what is the corresponding part of the endogenic nervous system? im not sure what subject it is
Answer:
hahahahahahahahahahahahahaha
Fill in the blank. When a child suppresses passing feces, he or she can experience __________ when attempting to have a bowel movement later
It is essential for parents and caregivers to encourage healthy bowel habits and ensure that the child maintains a balanced diet. Early intervention can help prevent chronic constipation and promote overall well-being for the child.
When a child suppresses passing feces, he or she can experience constipation when attempting to have a bowel movement later. This is because when the child holds in their stool, the colon absorbs water from the feces making it hard and difficult to pass.
This can lead to discomfort, pain, and even tears in the rectum. In some cases, chronic constipation can even cause long-term bowel problems. Therefore, it is important for parents to encourage their children to use the bathroom when they need to and to establish a regular bowel routine.
This can include eating a high-fiber diet, drinking plenty of water, and engaging in physical activity to keep the digestive system functioning properly. If a child is experiencing constipation, it is recommended to seek medical advice from a healthcare professional. They can offer advice on how to relieve the symptoms and prevent future occurrences.
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What features of EHRs are important to training specialists
Training specialists need to be well aware of the wide variety of information stored in electronic health records. For everyday practice, one needs to know how and when to pull up such documents such as patient demographics, medical diagnoses, and treatments. Knowing where different providers' orders are stored is also crucial, for knowing when a specific order will take effect. There's a lot more that goes into learning what an EHR does than just understanding its features - there's a whole science behind how these systems work.
Although the extent to which EHRs are beneficial for training specialists is still debated, it is known that they can help to minimize errors in clinical documentation and improve efficiency. This has been shown across multiple studies - some children hospitals have seen reduced medication discrepancies after implementing electronic health records. The completion of tasks, including filling laboratory orders and checking labs, also improved significantly when using modern technology during patient care rounds at a large research hospital in New York. At the same time, some experts argue that process-driven activities through these systems could reduce face-to-face interactions between doctors on team shifts with each other's patients on observation status, leading to
differentiate between the methylxanthine, selective beta-2, and anticholinergic drug agents, and select the drug class that produces mild stimulation of the central nervous system, heart, and kidneys and relaxation of smooth muscle.
Methylxanthines, selective beta-2 agonists, and anticholinergic drugs are three different classes of drugs used to treat various medical conditions.
Methylxanthines are a class of drugs that includes caffeine, theophylline, and theobromine. They are used primarily as bronchodilators in the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Methylxanthines work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, which improves breathing. They also have mild stimulatory effects on the central nervous system (CNS) and heart, which can increase alertness and heart rate.
Selective beta-2 agonists, such as albuterol, formoterol, and salmeterol, are another class of bronchodilator drugs that are commonly used to treat asthma and COPD. Beta-2 agonists work by selectively activating beta-2 receptors in the smooth muscles of the airways, which leads to the relaxation of these muscles and improved breathing. Unlike methylxanthines, beta-2 agonists have a more selective effect on the lungs and do not have significant stimulatory effects on the CNS or heart.
Anticholinergic drugs, such as ipratropium and tiotropium, are also used as bronchodilators in the treatment of asthma and COPD. They work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes the contraction of smooth muscle. Anticholinergics do not have significant stimulatory effects on the CNS or heart.
Based on the description provided, the drug class that produces mild stimulation of the CNS and heart, and relaxation of smooth muscle, is methylxanthines. This is because methylxanthines have mild stimulatory effects on the CNS and heart, while also relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways.
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Which laboratory test is conducted during the initial prenatal visit? one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The test conducted during the initial prenatal visit is: (3) Cervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Prenatal visit is the visit to the doctor or medical professional before giving birth to the child or the gestation period. Certain tests are performed at every visit and a regular check of the vitals of the body is kept. The visits are conducted in regular intervals of time as suggested by the doctor.
Cervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae is performed during the initials visits of pregnancy because the infection can be transferred from the mother to the child. Also, the infection is known to the reason for pre-mature birth or other life-threatening conditions.
The question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which laboratory test is conducted during the initial prenatal visit? One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1-hour glucose tolerance test3-hour glucose tolerance testCervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeaeChest x-ray for a positive tuberculosis skin test (TST)Group beta streptococcus (GBS) genital cultures.To know more about prenatal visit, here
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The peripheral nerves that supply the urinary bladder arise from which region of the spinal cord?
A. the thoracic and lumbar regions
B. the lumbar and sacral regions
C. the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions
D. the brain stem and sacral region
HELP IS NEEDED ASAP AND PLEASE PROVIDE AN EXPLANATION. THANK U SO MUCH :)
The peripheral nerves that supply the urinary bladder arise from the lumbar and sacral regions of the spinal cord. So, the correct option is (B).
What is Urinary bladder?The urinary bladder is defined as the hollow organ in humans and other vertebrates that stores urine from the kidneys prior to disposal by urination. The bladder in humans is an elongated organ located on the pelvic floor where urine enters the bladder through the ureters and exits through the urethra.
The urinary bladder is a temporary storage reservoir for urine which is located in the pelvic cavity, posterior to the symphysis pubis, and below the parietal peritoneum. Pelvic parasympathetic nerves that originate at the sacral level of the spinal cord stimulate the bladder, and relax the urethra.
Thus, the peripheral nerves that supply the urinary bladder arise from the lumbar and sacral regions of the spinal cord. So, the correct option is (B).
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there is an outbreak of an incredibly contagious life-threatening disease. the disease is spreading across the country at a rapid rate and the survival rate is less than 50%. you are a senior health care administrator, and when the vaccine is developed, you have priority to receive the drug. do you take the vaccine yourself or give it to another person? why or why not?
There is an outbreak of an incredibly contagious, life-threatening disease, and the disease is spreading across the country, so when the vaccine is developed, the senior health care administrator should get the vaccine first so that the general public can trust in that vaccine.
What role does health care play in a disease outbreak?When a disease outbreak is detected, health care workers gather more information about the disease's rate of spread and try to manage the vaccine to stop the spread and they should then take the vaccines so that they don't become contaminated while treating other patients, and they should gain people's trust by demonstrating that the vaccine is safe for them.
Hence, there is an outbreak of an incredibly contagious, life-threatening disease, and the disease is spreading across the country, so when the vaccine is developed, the senior health care administrator should get the vaccine first so that the general public can trust in that vaccine.
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The mediator noticed that tension was still evident between the nurse manager and staff members. He informed the chief nursing officer that to begin team-building, it would be important that everyone:
The mediator noticed that tension was still evident between the nurse manager and staff members and He informed the chief nursing officer that to begin team-building, it would be important that everyone: establish trust and open communication.
Trust is essential in any team, as it allows members to rely on each other and work together effectively. Open communication is also crucial, as it ensures that everyone is on the same page and any issues can be addressed in a timely and respectful manner.
By establishing trust and open communication, the team can begin to work through any tension and build a stronger, more cohesive unit.
It is important for the chief nursing officer to take the mediator's advice and prioritize these elements in team-building efforts.
This may include facilitating open discussions, providing opportunities for team members to get to know each other better, and addressing any concerns or issues in a respectful and constructive manner. By doing so, the team can begin to move past any tension and work together effectively.
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Which statement best describes morphology
Noctissssss where are you??????
If you don't know who noctis is don't answer plz
Answer:
Hey Elesis im here what do you wan't me for????