The Transtheoretical Model (TTM) of behavior change contends that people pass through stages of precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance in altering health-related behaviors.
This model was developed by Prochaska and DiClemente and is based on the idea that behavior change is a process that occurs over time, with individuals progressing through different stages before successfully modifying their behavior. The TTM suggests that individuals may move back and forth between stages before ultimately reaching the maintenance stage, where the behavior change becomes a long-term habit.
The TTM has been used in various settings to help individuals make positive changes to their health behaviors, such as quitting smoking, improving diet and exercise habits, and managing chronic health conditions.
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a 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. he has a history of atrial fibrillation and was previously treated for congestive heart failure with digoxin. physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with significant guarding. rectal examination reveals guaiac positive stool in the vault. white blood cell count is 24, 000/ml. abdominal x-ray reveals edema of the bowel wall. what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and was previously treated for congestive heart failure with digoxin. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with significant guarding. Rectal examination reveals guaiac positive stool in the vault. White blood cell count is 24,000/mL. Abdominal x-ray reveals edema of the bowel wall. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is surgical exploration.
What do you mean by diarrhea?Having at least three watery, loose, or loose-moving bowel motions every day is referred to as diarrhea. Due to fluid loss, it frequently lasts for a few days and can lead to dehydration. Dehydration symptoms frequently start with irritability and a lack of the skin's usual stretchiness. As it worsens, this might lead to decreased urine, skin discoloration, a rapid heartbeat, and a decrease in responsiveness. However, among infants who are exclusively breastfed, loose but dry feces are typical. The most typical cause is gastroenteritis, which is an infection of the intestines brought on by a virus, bacteria, or parasite.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that a 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and was previously treated for congestive heart failure with digoxin. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with significant guarding. Rectal examination reveals guaiac positive stool in the vault. White blood cell count is 24,000/mL. Abdominal x-ray reveals edema of the bowel wall. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is surgical exploration.
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assessment findings of a clinet include fatigue, hairloss, weight gain, and diagnositic test indicating anemia
Evaluation findings of a client encompass fatigue, hair loss, weight advantage, and diagnostic check indicating anemia is Levothyroxine.
Myxedema is a time period generally used to denote excessive hypothyroidism. Myxedema is also used to explain the dermatologic changes that occur in hypothyroidism and from time to time hyperthyroidism.
Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat an underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism). The thyroid gland makes thyroid hormones which help to govern strength degrees and increase. Levothyroxine is taken to replace the lacking thyroid hormone thyroxine. Levothyroxine is best to be had on a prescription.
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Cautions or contraindications for both loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are similar, and include all of the following EXCEPT _____.
Cautions or contraindications for both loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are similar, and include all of the following except hypertension.
The loop diuretics are extremely protein bound and so enter the tube primarily by secretion within the proximal tube, instead of by capillary vessel filtration. The foremost usually used loop diuretics are diuretic, bumetanide, and torsemide, that are antibacterial derivatives.
Thiazide diuretics are counseled joined of the primary drug treatments for the high blood pressure. If diuretics are not enough to lower your blood pressure, your doctor may add different blood pressure medications to your treatment arrange.
Hypertension is a heavy medical condition that considerably will increase the risks of heart, brain, excretory organ and alternative diseases.
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Which of the choices below describes the ANS?
a) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
b) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
c) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
d) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS.
Motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles best describes the autonomic nervous system.
What are the functions of autonomic nervous system?The autonomic nervous system is a component of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary physiologic processes including heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, digestion, and sexual arousal.
The autonomic nervous system controls internal body processes such as the following: Blood pressure. Heart and breathing rates. Body temperature.
The autonomic nervous system regulates certain body processes, such as blood pressure and the rate of breathing. This system works automatically (autonomously), without a person's conscious effort.
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General procedures ( codes 20005-20999 ) are used for various anatmical strures and not limited to anyone body area. true or false
E/MCPT code for a patient I was treated in the emergency department following a fall from a ladder. The patient was cleaning the gutters on his home when he fell approximately 40 feet. He presents to the hospital ED with complaints of right leg and ankle pain. The patient also has multiple contusions abrasions and Versions of his trunk, legs and forearms. He sent an x-ray to rule out fracture of his leg and ankles. The ED documents a detailed examination, medical decision making of moderate complexity and detailed history
In these cases of accident at height, the doctor's decision must take into account the tolerability of the risks.
Risk tolerabilityAdopted by the HSE is represented by a schematic drawing divided into three regions. The triangle represents the increase in the level of risk for a particular hazardous activity (measured by the magnitude of individual risk and societal concern) as one moves upward from the bottom of the triangle.
Step 1: characterization of the acute health event;
Step 2: characterization of the acute health event in terms of risks and decision-making;
Step 3: Assessment of available options for risk management within the scope of occupational medical examinations.
With this information, we can conclude that in these cases of accident at height, the doctor's decision must take into account the tolerability of the risks.
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Which sentences make correct use of adverbs and adjectives? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. b. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. c. Tom’s sales pitch was received good. d. Tom was really pleased with his results.
The sentences that make correct use of adverbs and adjectives are as follows:option a ) Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. option b) Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. option d) Tom was really pleased with his results.
The correct use of the adverbs and adjectives are as follows:The sentence “Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table” uses the adjective "highest" to describe Alma’s score. In this sentence, the adjective is modifying the noun "score".
The sentence “Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s” uses the adverb "enthusiastically" to modify the verb "responded". The sentence compares Alma’s customer response with that of Tom’s.The sentence “Tom was really pleased with his results” uses the adverb "really" to modify the adjective "pleased".
The adverb "really" is used to intensify the meaning of the adjective "pleased". Hence the correct sentences are:A. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table.B. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s.D. Tom was really pleased with his results.
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Which of the following statement is true?
Group of answer choices
Every medical term must contain at least one prefix
Most medical terms contain at least one suffix
A root can be found at the beginning, middle, or end of the medical term
Every medical term must contain at least three roots
The statement that is true concerning the medical term is that a root can be found at the beginning, middle, or end of the medical term.
What are medical terms?Medical terms are professional words used in health and medical field for diagnosis and easy communication between the medical personnel.
There are three main parts of the medical term that includes the following:
The prefixThe suffix and The root.The root of the medical terms is what conveys the main information to be passed and can be found in the center of the term, ending or the beginning if a prefix is not present.
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Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that
A) is stimulated to release when blood volume decreases.
B) inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
C) raises blood pressure.
D) is released from the adrenal cortex and stimulates atrial hormone.
Answer:
(ANP) is a cardiac hormone. its primary function is to control blood pressure.
for this reason, I believe the answer is B) inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
is an every day practice in all aspects in veterinary medicine, not just in emergency and critical care situations.
A wide range of services are offered by veterinarians, who also play a significant role in preserving the environment, public health, animal welfare, and animal health. and/or the creatures it looks after.
Which moral problems in veterinary medicine are the most prevalent?Veterinary medicine is practiced on a daily basis in various areas, not simply in cases requiring emergency or critical care.
Veterinary Medicine Ethics Case StudiesIssues with available treatments are among them (whether to try the most advanced treatments available or not, etc.). - Animal welfare-related concerns A developing code of ethics called as the Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics is required of all veterinarians (PVME).
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Veterinarians provide a wide range of services and also contribute significantly to environmental preservation, public health, animal welfare, and animal health. and/or the animals it cares for.
Option A is correct.
What is a veterinary practice purpose?Veterinarians offer a wide range of services and contribute significantly to the protection of the environment, animal health, public health, and animal welfare. provided and/or the animals it is responsible for Veterinary Medicine Ethics Case Studies There are issues with the treatments that are available, such as whether or not to try the most cutting-edge treatments. Concerns regarding the welfare of animals All veterinarians are required to adhere to a newly developed code of ethics known as the Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics (PVME).
Incomplete question :
______ is an everyday practice in all aspects in veterinary medicine, not just in emergency and critical care situations.
A. Animal welfare , public health
B.Perform surgery
C.Pet animals
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Zander is trying to determine the correct answer on a multiple-choice test. He has eliminated two of the four answer options because they do not fit the question, and now he is trying to recall what he knows about the question. Which two parts of zander’s brain are working to perform these operations? hippocampus and hypothalamus hippocampus and cerebrum cerebrum and cerebellum cerebellum and hypothalamus.
The parts of Zander’s brain that are working to perform these operations include the hippocampus and cerebrum. They are part of the brain.
What are the hippocampus and cerebrum?The hippocampus is a layer of packed nerve cells (neurons), which can be considered as an extension of the cerebral cortex.
The hippocampus can be found in the inner or medial area of the temporal lobe, forming the limbic system.
The cerebrum is the most important and largest part of our brain, which consists of two cerebral hemispheres (right and left).
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What are the processes involved in Erythropoiesis?
Answer:
Erythropoiesis is the process whereby a fraction of primitive multipotent HSCs becomes committed to the red-cell lineage. Erythropoiesis involves highly specialized functional differentiation and gene expression. The main role of RBCs is to carry O2 in the blood by the hemoglobin molecule.
Answer:
The stages for the erythrocyte are rubriblast, prorubriblast, rubricyte and metarubricye. Finally the stages can also be named according to the development of the normoblast stage. This gives the stages pronormoblast, early normoblast, intermediate normoblast, late normoblast, polychromatic cell.
Explanation:
You're a leader in a small community hospital and you're tasked with developing new strategies to lower the overall cost of care. What clinical systems or new processes would you consider to help this task?
Please provide in depth examples and explanations. Please no copying/pasting other chegg material.
As a leader in a small community hospital tasked with developing new strategies to lower the overall cost of care, there are several clinical systems and new processes that you can consider.
Here are some examples:
1. Electronic Health Records (EHR): Implementing an EHR system can help streamline patient information, reduce paper usage, and minimize errors. EHRs allow for better coordination of care among healthcare providers, leading to improved efficiency and cost savings.
2. Telemedicine: Utilizing telemedicine technologies can help reduce costs associated with in-person visits. By providing remote consultations and monitoring, healthcare providers can reach more patients without the need for physical infrastructure. This can help lower costs related to travel, infrastructure, and staffing.
3. Care Coordination: Developing a robust care coordination program can help optimize patient care and reduce unnecessary healthcare services. This involves ensuring smooth transitions of care between different healthcare providers and settings, avoiding duplicate tests or procedures, and promoting effective communication among the care team.
4. Utilization Review: Implementing a utilization review process can help identify and eliminate unnecessary procedures, tests, or medications. By reviewing the appropriateness and efficiency of healthcare services, healthcare providers can reduce costs without compromising patient outcomes.
5. Health Information Exchange (HIE): Establishing an HIE system enables secure sharing of patient information between different healthcare organizations. This can help reduce duplicate tests, improve care coordination, and avoid unnecessary healthcare expenses.
6. Preventive Care Programs: Investing in preventive care programs can help reduce the need for expensive treatments and hospitalizations. By promoting regular screenings, vaccinations, and healthy lifestyle choices, healthcare providers can prevent or detect diseases at earlier stages, leading to cost savings in the long run.
7. Data Analytics: Utilizing data analytics tools can help identify patterns and trends in healthcare utilization and costs. By analyzing this data, healthcare leaders can make informed decisions to optimize resource allocation, identify areas for cost reduction, and improve overall efficiency.
It's important to note that the implementation of these systems and processes may require initial investments and training. However, in the long run, they have the potential to lower the overall cost of care while improving patient outcomes and satisfaction.
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preindopril mechanism of action ?
Answer:
inhibition of ACE activity.
Explanation:
The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.
Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).
Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of marijuana use?
A.
Lower learning capabilities
B.
Weaker communication skills
C.
Increased memory
D.
Shorter attention span
Answer:
I think it's increased memory
Answer:
its c. increases memory
In recent years, a dangerous and highly addictive form of amphetamine, called _____, has become a serious problem, especially in communities where the rave culture is prominent.
a. Nicotine
b. Methamphetamine
c. Khatd.
d. Methylphenidate
Answer: b. Methamphetamine
Explanation:
b. Methamphetamine has become a serious problem in recent years, especially in communities where the rave culture is prominent. It is a highly addictive form of amphetamine that can cause serious harm to a person's physical and mental health, including heart and brain damage, psychosis, and addiction.
medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
a patient/client was directed to take 8 oz of miralax solution as bowel prep for a colonoscopy. the miralax powder was mixed in 64 oz of gatorade. the client drank 8 oz every 15 minutes for six doses. two doses remained. how many milliliters of miralax solution remained?
If the client drank 8 oz every 15 minutes for six doses, 480ml of Miralax solution remained.
A colonoscopy is an examination to look for changes in the large intestine (rectum) and swollen, irritated tissues, polyps, or cancer. During a colonoscopy, a long, adaptable cylinder (colonoscope) is embedded into the rectum.
Six times, the client received 8 ounces for each dose.
Total ounces consumed = 8 oz x 6 doses. = 48ounces.
Miralax sends = 64ouncess.
Ounces of solution remained = 64 - 48 = 16ounces,.
1 ounce = 29.574ml.
16 ounces = 16 x 29.574ml.
= 480ml approximately.
Hence, 480ml of Miralax solution remained.
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Quick Check
What does a Freudian Slip reveal?
Answer:
Freudian slips are those embarrassing tell-tale slips of the tongue that reveal our innermost thoughts. They are the verbal mistakes that are linked to our unconscious feelings. Even the rich and famous are vulnerable to Freudian slips.
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"If I want to cut the grass, it is imperative that I start my lawnmower."
Is an example of a:
a) categorical imperative
b) hypothetical imperative
the answer is b) hypothetical imperative because you want to cut the grass
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Sue Larson am active 16 year old presented to the office with ankle fracture the provider has order you to help fit her for crutches. She states she has never had an injury like this before and that she doesn’t think she needs assistance it will be fun and easy to use crutches
Answer: well first of all using crutches is not easy and fun i was stuck in crutches for one month and half first wrapped the ankle up then have them try and walk around with the crutches
Explanation:
I'll tell the patient that crutches will help her walk better as they'll provide her with the needed support when they walk.
Crutches are often used by someone who has an injury in the leg and cannot walk properly.
Since Sue has an ankle fracture, using crutches will her her regain stability and balance. Using the crutches is also important as it'll reduce the stress on the leg.
In conclusion, the above reasons will be given to Sue to enable her take the crutches.
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The nurse notes the patient's IV pump is set at 10ml/hr. The IV bag holds 30 units of Pitocin mixed in 500ml of Lactated Ringers. How many mu/min is the client receiving?
Pitocin is a brand name for oxytocin, which is a hormone that helps stimulate uterine contractions during labor and delivery. The medication is usually administered through an IV pump and requires careful monitoring of the infusion rate to prevent adverse effects.
To determine the mu/min rate, we need to convert the mL/hr infusion rate to mu/min using the concentration of the Pitocin solution. Here's how:
1. Convert the mL/hr infusion rate to mL/min:
10 mL/hr ÷ 60 min/hr = 0.1667 mL/min
2. Determine the concentration of Pitocin in the IV bag:
30 units / 500 mL = 0.06 units/mL
3. Convert the mL/min infusion rate to mu/min:
0.1667 mL/min x 0.06 units/mL x 1000 mu/1 unit = 1 mu/min
Therefore, the client is receiving 1 mu/min of Pitocin.
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1. Conduct research to find four different food sources that could be part of a high-protein diet. For each food source, indicate the major amino acids and other nutritional benefits that are present, then indicate the recommended minimum daily intake of protein for adults. Cite the sources of your research. BBoldIItalicsUUnderlineBulleted listNumbered listSuperscriptSubscript
Answer:
1. Tuna (Protein content: 32g per 100g)
2. Breast chicken (Protein content: 31g per 100g)
3. Cheddar (Protein content: 25g per 100g)
4. Walnuts (Protein content: 16g per 100g)
Explanation:
1. Tuna. Tuna is rich in essential amino acids (i.e., lysine, methionine, cysteine, threonine and tryptophan), and omega-3 fatty acids, which helps to prevent cardiovascular diseases. Moreover, this food is an important source of vitamin A, B Group vitamins (i.e., thiamin, riboflavin, niacin) and minerals (i.e., calcium, phosphorus, iron, etc.) (Fatimah et al. 2019).
2. Chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in fat and an excellent source of protein, vitamins (vitamin B6, niacin), and many essential minerals (selenium, phosphorus,iron, calcium). Chicken is a rich source of methionine, the precursor of homocysteine (Bansal and Joshi 2017).
3. Cheddar. Cheddar cheese is produced from milk, which has a good content of calcium that helps to prevent osteoporosis and vitamin K. This food has significant quantities of essential amino acids (e.g., lysine, threonine, and tryptophan) (Gueimonde et al. 2019).
4. Walnuts. Walnuts are rich in fats (lipids), especially omega-3 fatty acids, which are required for normal brain function (Haider, Saida, et al. 2011). Moreover, walnuts have a high content of arginine amino acid.
All pandemics are caused by infectious virus or bacteria that cross from animals to humansa. Trueb. False
Answer:
False, not all viruses are zoonotic diseases. Some originate within the human body such as influenza type a
Explanation:
Why do Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae seldom cause meningitis in newborns
Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae seldom cause meningitis in newborns because they have immature immune systems that are not exposed to these bacteria.
Newborns have immature immune systems, which means they are less likely to encounter and respond to these specific bacteria compared to older individuals. Additionally, newborns receive some level of protection from their mothers through the transfer of maternal antibodies during pregnancy and breastfeeding. This passive immunity helps protect them from certain infections, including meningitis caused by these specific bacteria. However, it's important to note that newborns can still be vulnerable to other types of bacterial meningitis, such as those caused by Group B Streptococcus and Escherichia coli.
To maintain a healthy immune system and reduce the risk of infection, proper hygiene, vaccinations, and close monitoring of the newborn's health are essential. In summary, the lower incidence of meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae in newborns can be attributed to their immature immune systems and the protective effect of maternal antibodies.
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Which of the following is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes?
a) introns
b) repressors
c) operons
The correct answer is (a) introns, which is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes.Explanation:Prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes are significantly different in structure, organization, and regulation. The nucleoid region, a plasmid, and an operon are the three main components of prokaryotic genes.
In contrast, eukaryotic genes have a distinct nucleus containing DNA molecules as chromosomes. Eukaryotic genes have introns and exons, as well as promoters and enhancers to control gene expression.Operons are a group of genes that operate together and are regulated by a single promoter in prokaryotic cells.
In contrast, eukaryotic genes, which have complex chromatin arrangements, are regulated by transcription factors and enhancers that work together to control gene expression.Introns, on the other hand, are segments of DNA that are not expressed in protein synthesis and are unique to eukaryotic genes.
They must be removed via RNA splicing in order for the gene to be expressed. As a result, introns are found in eukaryotic genes but not in prokaryotic genes. Therefore, the correct option is (a) introns.
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explain each of the 10 steps to correct coding and how they are completed.
The 10 steps to correct coding and how they are completed are given below:
What are the steps about?Step 1: one need to know the reason for the sign, symptom, as well as the diagnosis and condition that need to be coded.
Here, If symptoms are found but a definitive diagnosis is not been done, or has not been determined, one can code the symptoms. Make sure that one do not use code conditions that are seen as "rule out", "suspected" or one that can be questioned.Step 2: Do sure to use as a reference point the Alphabetic Index, before one can turn into tabular list.
This acts to prevent coding errors, and it is one that is often used in AI and TL when finding and assigning a code.Step 3: Then find or locate the main entry term.
Here, the Main terms are seen by the use of boldface type such as sub term.Step 4: Then Read and tell or interpret any notes that has been listed along with the main term.
Note that the Notes are said to be identified via the use of italicized type.Step 5:One need to Review entries that can be used for modifiers.
Note that nonessential modifiers are the ones that can be seen parenthesis and this is one that does not affect code assignment.Step 6: Then one has to interpret abbreviations, also cross reference, the use of symbols and that of brackets.
Note that cross references that are often used are "see", "see also", additional code.Step 7: Then select or take a tentative code and find it in the TL,
One need to be guided by the use of any inclusion or exclusion terms, such as "code first" and " the use of additional code"Step 8: Find if the code is at the greatest level in terms of specificity.
Here you assign a 3 digit code, when there is no 4th digit code. One can also assign 4 digit code when there is no 5th digit code.Step 9: Then look through the color coding and then one can reimbursement ideas, and make use of the age and sex edits.
Here, you need to use the official guidelines.Step 10: Lastly, one then Assign the code.
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HELP ASAP PLEASE!!!! In your day-to-day life, statistics are presented on social media and the news. How do you imagine that you will use statistics in your Pharmacy Technician career?
Answer:
For a pharmacy technician, statistics can be helpful to analyze diverse aspects of their work such as, for example, number of interventions, patient's attitude in regard to treatment, adherence to target medication, interventions registered, satisfaction rate to medical service providers, etc.
Explanation:
Pharmacy technicians are health professionals who control the supply of medicines and provide medical advice to patients. To fulfill these obligations, it is imperative that pharmacy technicians have a full understanding of customers' and providers' needs, and statistics is fundamental for defining the strategies in order to provide better medical care. For example, descriptive statistics enables to summarize the data from samples of the population, and therefore it is useful to examine medical information in order to maximize its management effectiveness.
Animal research is a recent scientific invention. truefalse
Answer: True
Explanation: "Animal research is a recent scientific invention. Current ethical standards for psychology experiments were established by Freud in the 1920s."
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If the physician tested for automated CBC and automated differential wbc count, hepatitis b surface antigen (HbsAg),rubella antibody, qualitative syphilis test, RBC antibody screening, ABO blood typing and Rh (D) blood typing, what will you code
Answer:
Obstetric panel
Explanation:
The obstetric panel has a test code of 20210 with CPT codes of 80055 which includes a Complete Blood Count with White Blood Cell Differential Count, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen, RPR Screen/Reflex Titer/FTA, Rubella Immunity (IgG), and Type/Rh/Antibody Screen (Prenatal).