Answers
The nurse instructs the patient on COX-2 inhibitor Celecoxib (Celebrex).
Two COX-2 inhibitors (coxibs), celecoxib and parecoxib, are authorised for the treatment of immediate postoperative pain and the signs and symptoms of chronic inflammatory diseases such osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicine (NSAID) used to treat mild to moderate pain and help reduce symptoms of arthritis, such as inflammation, swelling, stiffness, and joint discomfort (e.g., osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or juvenile rheumatoid arthritis).Your chance of suffering a heart attack or stroke may increase if you use this medication. In those who already have cardiac disease, this is more likely. Long-term users of this medication may also be at greater risk. Your stomach or bowels could bleed as a result of this medication.
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Related Questions
Mary Brown brings her 2 month son, Zach, in for his well child check. The provider discusses vaccines with the mother and the mother refuses her son to have the vaccines. Using the Patients' Bill of Rights, apply it as it relates to the refusal of treatment, by discussing what needs to happen.
Answers
Answer:
An Exception according to the patients' Bill of right enables the doctor to carry out the vaccination without the consent of the parent of the baby because the vaccination is life sustaining
Explanation:
Applying the patients' Bill of rights as it applies to refusal of treatment , a patient has the right to refuse treatment and it is the duty of the doctor or physician IN charge of the patient to try to convince the patient on reasons why the treatment should be administered on them and also try to eliminate any fear that the patient might be entertaining.
But in a case like the one mentioned above whereby Mary Brown is trying to deny her child a treatment that its denial might be life threatening to the child ,there is an Exception according to the patients' Bill of right that enables the doctor to carry out the vaccination without the consent of the parent of the baby because the vaccination is life sustaining
A drug has been approved by the food and drug administration. what study phase would occur next?
Answers
Phase IV
A kind of clinical research that examines long-term adverse effects brought on by a novel treatment after it has received regulatory approval and is available on the market.
These studies may also examine the effectiveness of a novel medication over an extended period of time while searching for adverse effects that were not detected in previous studies. Post-marketing surveillance (PMS) studies are not all phase IV studies, although every PMS study is a phase IV research.
Investigate the effectiveness of a novel treatment over an extended length of time. Thousands of individuals may participate in phase IV clinical studies. also known as a post-marketing monitoring trial and a phase 4 clinical trial.
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1. What have you learned so far in this course that will help you conduct effective health assessments?
Answers
Answer: I learned how to take a bullet out of someone.
Explanation:
Based on the ideas presented in this lab, what other differences would you expect to see in the thinking and behaviors of split-brain patients?.
Answers
Playing music or engaging in sports are two examples of the variances that split-brain patients' thinking and behaviors could differ. Both hemispheres of the brain are used in these actions.
What are the hemispheres of the brain?The right and left cerebral hemispheres are the two main hemispheres that make up the cerebrum.The corpus callosum connects these hemispheres of the brain together.It has been established that the left hemisphere controls language, mathematics, and writing, whereas the right hemisphere controls things like spatial awareness and musical aptitude.Playing music or engaging in sports, for example, requires the simultaneous use of both brain hemispheres.To learn more about hemisphere with the given link
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assignment catalase and cuagulase
Answers
Answer:
Catalase is an enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen gas. ... This test assays for the presence of coagulase, an enzyme that coagulates blood plasma, and can differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus (coagulase positive) and Staphylococcus epidermidis (coagulase negative).
Explanation:
a pharmacy technician is compounding an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment. it should be 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine. when the 40g order is complete how much of the solution will be the inactive solvent?
a. 2 g
b. 5 g
c. 38 g
d. 39.2 g
Answers
Answer:
When a pharmacy technician is preparing an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment containing 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, the amount of ointment that corresponds to the inactive solvent is 38 g.
Explanation:
If a pharmaceutical preparation of hydrocortisone ointment contains 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, it will contain only 2 g of these active compounds in 40 g of preparation. This means that the amount of inert or inactive solvent is 38 g.
1. Hydrocortisone 2% + calamine 3% = 5%.
40 g ------------------ 100%
X ------------------ 5%
Active components = (40 X 5) / 100 = 2g
2. Inactive solvent = Total amount - active components
Inactive solvent = 40 g - 2 g = 38 g
2% hydrocortisone ointment composition
Hydrocortisone ........ 0,8 g
Calamine ................. 1,2 g
Inert excipient ..... 38 g
Total ......................... 40 g
2. Hard boiled eggs can be left out of refrigeration for only 3-4 hours.
True or false
Answers
Answer:false
Explanation: this is because the bacteria in the egg has to stay at a certain temperature to stay good so therefore they will go bad
hope this helped
Does medicare cover transportation to medical appointments?.
Answers
lab reports should be filed in _____ in a separate section of the patient chart.
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Lab reports should be filed in the "Laboratory" section of the patient chart, which is a separate section dedicated to documenting and organizing all laboratory test results.
Lab reports are an essential component of a patient's medical record. They contain important information about the results of various laboratory tests conducted on the patient, such as blood tests, urine tests, imaging studies, and more. To ensure proper organization and easy accessibility, lab reports are typically filed in a separate section within the patient chart, known as the "Laboratory" section.
The Laboratory section of the patient chart serves as a repository for all lab-related information. It allows healthcare providers to review and track the results of diagnostic tests over time, monitor changes in the patient's condition, and make informed decisions about their diagnosis, treatment, and overall care. By having a dedicated section for lab reports, healthcare professionals can quickly locate and reference the specific information they need without having to sift through other sections of the patient chart, improving efficiency and accuracy in patient management.
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why is it possible for an egg to be fertilized in the pelvic cavity of a female insteadof her reproductive tract
Answers
Answer:
Because the surroundingenvironment of pelvic cavity is suitable for the egg to be fertilized. Also the sperms are excreated there not in reproductive tract.
Explanation:
Question 25 (4 points)
Medical______
is special vocabulary that is used in healthcare and is often formed from Latin and Greek word parts
1)Latin
2)language
3)coding
4)terminology
Answers
have a great day!
it’s 4
have a good day
What is a central nervous system depressant drug?
Answers
A central nervous system (CNS) depressant drug is a type of drug that slows down the activity of the central nervous system, including the brain and spinal cord.
These drugs can produce a range of effects, including sedation, relaxation, reduced anxiety, and decreased muscle tension. For example: Benzodiazepines: A class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety, insomnia, and seizure disorders.
Barbiturates: A class of drugs that act as sedatives and hypnotics. They are used for the treatment of seizures, anxiety, and insomnia. Examples include phenobarbital and secobarbital.
Opioids: A class of drugs that are used to manage pain. Examples include oxycodone, hydrocodone, and morphine.
Alcohol: A legal depressant drug that is commonly consumed for its sedative effects.
CNS depressant drugs can be dangerous if misused or combined with other drugs that also depress the central nervous system, such as alcohol. They can cause respiratory depression, which can lead to coma or death.
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Hello, is there anyone here a pharmacy technician?
Answers
Answer:
my friends dad
Explanation:
Find a scholarly, peer-reviewed article no more than four years old that discusses an ethical health promotion-related issue. Use the WCU library databases to search for appropriate articles.
In your paper:
Briefly summarize the presented issue.
Describe your thoughts on the role health care professionals should play in resolving the ethical issue.
Provide specific theories and refer to specific ethical codes to support your position.
Answers
The article chosen for the analysis is "The ethics of primary prevention: exploring the potential of ethics integration in health promotion." The article discusses how health care professionals can and should play a more significant role in the prevention of illness and disease by promoting healthy lifestyles and behaviors.
Brief summary of the presented issue: The article highlights how the role of health care professionals in primary prevention is not adequately addressed, and their involvement can be critical in promoting health and preventing illness. The article stresses the need for ethical integration in health promotion and primary prevention strategies. The authors argue that healthcare professionals can play a vital role in health promotion activities by adopting an ethical perspective.
Healthcare professionals can and should play a more significant role in promoting health and preventing disease. By adopting an ethical perspective, they can help to prevent illness and promote healthy lifestyles and behaviors. Healthcare professionals can help patients make informed decisions by providing them with accurate and timely information. They can also help to identify potential health risks and provide guidance on how to reduce or eliminate those risks.
Specific theories and ethical codes to support this position:The American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics for Nurses stresses the importance of patient advocacy and the need for healthcare professionals to promote and protect their patients' health. The code emphasizes the importance of patient education and informed decision-making, and healthcare professionals' responsibility to provide accurate and timely information to their patients. The article also highlights the need for healthcare professionals to adopt an ethical perspective in their primary prevention strategies.
The article argues that by doing so, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that their patients receive the best possible care and promote healthy lifestyles and behaviors.
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Between which two numbers is the quotient of 88 ÷ 5?
Answers
16. A child is 40" tall and weighs 66 lb. A physician orders phenobarbital for the
control of seizures. The normal adult dose is 100 mg tid. The available
medication is 20 mg/5 mL. What's the approximate volume the child should
receive per dose based on the adult dose?
O A. 44 mg
O B. 11 mg
O C. 44 mL
O D. 11 mL
Answers
the nurse recognizes the patient is demonstrating signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (dka). which findings support this recognition? select all that apply.
Answers
As a result of inadequate insulin production, the condition arises. Sugar, a significant source of energy for muscles and other tissues, enters cells in the body with the help of the hormone insulin.
What is Diabetic acidosis?The body starts to use fat as fuel when insulin levels are too low. As a result, ketones, an acidic substance, accumulate in the bloodstream. It can result in diabetic ketoacidosis if the buildup is not treated.
The warning signs of diabetic ketoacidosis and when to seek emergency care should be understood if you have diabetes or are at risk for developing it.
Over 300 mg/dL, or 16.7 mmol/L, of blood sugar was measured in more than one test, indicating high blood sugar. You need advice from your doctor since you have ketones in your urine but are unable to reach them.
Therefore, As a result of inadequate insulin production, the condition arises. Sugar, a significant source of energy for muscles and other tissues, enters cells in the body with the help of the hormone insulin.
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Which of the following organizations must comply with the PHS Policy when utilizing vertebrate animals for research, teaching, or testing?
O Those organizations that accept Public Health Service (PHS) or National Science Foundation (NSF) funding.O Sponsors a voluntary accreditation program for animal care and use programs.O Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW)O Non-vertebrates, laboratory mice, and laboratory rats.
Answers
The PHS Policy is a set of standards administered by the Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW). It is designed to ensure that all vertebrate animals used in research, research training, and biological testing are provided with human care and treatment.
What is Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW)?The Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW) is a program within the National Institutes of Health (NIH) that ensures the humane care and use of laboratory animals in research funded by the NIH. OLAW is responsible for administering the Public Health Service (PHS) Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, which sets standards for the care and use of animals in research, testing, and training. OLAW provides guidance and oversight to institutions receiving PHS funding for animal research and works to ensure compliance with federal regulations and policies. OLAW also provides educational materials and resources to assist institutions in the humane care and use of laboratory animals.
What is animal testing?Animal testing is the practice of carrying out abnormal and frequently unpleasant experiments on caged animals in demanding laboratory settings, frequently with the false hope that the results will be applied to humans.
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List three reasons a TST would be contraindicated in a patient.
Answers
1. Prior positive TST: If a patient has already had a positive TST result in the past, then they are considered to have a latent TB infection and do not need another TST. Instead, a different test such as interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) may be used to monitor the patient's TB infection status.
2. Recent vaccination: If a patient has received a bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine within the past 4-6 weeks, then the vaccine may cause a false-positive TST result. Therefore, it is recommended to wait at least 4-6 weeks after BCG vaccination before administering a TST.
3. Immunosuppression: If a patient is immunocompromised due to a medical condition or medication use, then the TST may not be reliable in detecting TB infection. In such cases, an IGRA test may be more appropriate, or other diagnostic tests may be necessary to evaluate the patient's TB infection status.
It is important to note that the decision to perform a TST or any diagnostic test is based on the patient's individual medical history and risk factors. Before administering any diagnostic test, healthcare providers should review the patient's medical history and assess any contraindications or potential risks associated with the test.
which feature is more superior: the sciatic nerve or the tibial nerve? 0 word(s)
Answers
It is not accurate to say that one nerve is more "superior" than the other, as both the sciatic nerve and the tibial nerve have important functions in the body.
The sciatic nerve is the largest and longest nerve in the body, and it is responsible for connecting the spinal cord to the muscles of the leg and foot.
The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, and it is responsible for providing sensory and motor function to the lower leg and foot.
Both nerves are essential for the proper functioning of the lower extremities, and it is not accurate to compare them in terms of superiority.
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Faith is a patient who always disrupts the clinic. She is constantly complaining about everything from the moment he enters until the moment she leaves. Izzy is at the desk when she arrives to check out and pay her bill. When Izzy tells Faith that she has previous balance, she starts to argue with her and tells her she did not complete the paperwork properly. Izzy is not in charge of completing the paperwork and does not handle the billing. How can Izzy be courteous with Faith?
Answers
Answer: By telling faith that its not her job
Explanation:
Why is it important that a pharmacist knows each medication that a person is taking before they provide a new drug?
Answers
What book i should read to begin to study neuroscience?
Answers
Answer:
Books 1 and 2: The classic neuroscience textbooks
For a textbook similar to the one used in high school biology classes, there are 2 that are generally regarded as the most thorough, and well written. These books are Eric Kandel's Principles of Neural Science*, and Larry Squire's Fundamental Neuroscience.
In providing care for a client with a nasogastric tube connected to intermittent suction, which task can be assigned to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Secure the tube to the client's nose
B. Ensure correct placement of the tube C.Maintain low intermittent suction
D. Replace the canister when full
Answers
The tasks that can be assigned to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in providing care for a client with a nasogastric tube connected to intermittent suction are maintaining low intermittent suction and replacing the canister when full.
In providing care for a client with a nasogastric tube connected to intermittent suction, there are certain tasks that can be assigned to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Let's go through each option to determine which task can be assigned to the UAP:
A. Securing the tube to the client's nose: This task requires knowledge of proper technique and placement to prevent discomfort or displacement of the tube. It is best performed by a licensed nurse or healthcare professional who has received specific training in nasogastric tube management. Therefore, this task should not be assigned to the UAP.
B. Ensuring correct placement of the tube: Verifying the correct placement of the nasogastric tube is a critical task that requires skill and expertise to prevent complications such as aspiration or incorrect medication administration. This task should be performed by a licensed nurse or healthcare professional with the necessary training and knowledge to confirm proper tube placement.
C. Maintaining low intermittent suction: The UAP can be assigned the task of maintaining low intermittent suction. This involves monitoring and adjusting the suction level as directed by the healthcare provider or nurse. The UAP should be trained on how to operate and troubleshoot the suction equipment, as well as understand the appropriate suction level for the client's condition. Regular checks and documentation of suction settings should be done to ensure the proper functioning of the equipment and prevent potential complications.
D. Replacing the canister when full: The UAP can also be assigned the task of replacing the canister when it becomes full. This task involves safely disconnecting the suction tubing from the full canister, disposing of the waste appropriately, and connecting a new, empty canister to the tubing. The UAP should follow infection control protocols and wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when handling and disposing of the waste.
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health records management
Answers
Health records management refers to the process of collecting, organizing, and maintaining healthcare-related information for patients.
What is Health records management?Health records management is important for several reasons, including:
Providing a comprehensive view of a patient's health history, which can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about diagnosis and treatment.
Ensuring accuracy and completeness of patient information, which is critical for effective healthcare delivery and patient safety.
Supporting communication and collaboration among healthcare providers, which can improve care coordination and patient outcomes.
Meeting legal and regulatory requirements for maintaining patient records, including privacy and security standards.
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What is the solution to the equation one-half x 3 = two-thirds x 1? one-third two-thirds 2 12
Answers
The solution to the equation one-half x 3 = two-thirds x 1 is two-thirds.
Begin by multiplying both sides by the reciprocal of one-half to remove the fraction.
(1/2)x3 = (2/3)x1
Multiply both sides by 2
2x3 = (2/3)x2
Simplify the right side of the equation
2x3 = 4/3
Divide both sides by 3
2x3/3 = 4/3/3
Simplify
2 = 4/3
Therefore, the solution is two-thirds.
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Daisy has a chronic illness, and to treat the condition, she takes an antibiotic every day. Despite her illness, Daisy's diet is nutritionally adequate, and she exercises regularly. Based on this information, Daisy may need to _______.
Answers
Daisy may need to adhere to a consistent medication regimen to ensure the effectiveness of her antibiotic treatment.
Based on the information provided, Daisy has a chronic illness that requires her to take an antibiotic every day. The use of antibiotics for a chronic condition typically involves a specific treatment regimen recommended by a healthcare professional. Adherence to medication is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating her condition and preventing complications or the development of antibiotic resistance.
Furthermore, while Daisy's diet is described as nutritionally adequate and she exercises regularly, it is important to note that these lifestyle factors may contribute positively to her overall health and well-being. A balanced diet and regular exercise can support her immune system, enhance her general health, and potentially aid in managing her chronic illness.
Daisy should continue to follow her healthcare provider's instructions regarding her medication regimen, including the dosage, frequency, and duration of antibiotic use.
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If an individual's intake of a nutrient is between his or her Recommended Dietary Allowance value and Tolerable Upper Intake Level value, the individual's intake of that nutrient is probably _____.
Answers
If an individual's intake of a nutrient is between his or her Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) value and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) value, the individual's intake of that nutrient is probably adequate.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance represents the average daily intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of most healthy individuals within a specific age and sex group. On the other hand, the Tolerable Upper Intake Level is the maximum daily intake of a nutrient that is unlikely to pose any risk of adverse effects for most individuals. When an individual's nutrient intake falls between these two values, it suggests that they are meeting their nutritional needs without exceeding the safe upper limit. This indicates that their intake is likely adequate to support proper bodily functions and prevent deficiencies or excessive intake-related health concerns.
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In 2012 the CMS-1500 claim form was revised to version 02-12 to accommodate:a) the change in the name of the Health Care Finance Administrationb) reporting of NPI numbersc) ICD-10 Diagnosis Codesd) optical scanning
Answers
The CMS-1500 claim form was revised to version 02-12 in 2012 to accommodate various changes in the healthcare system.
The revision of the CMS-1500 claim form was necessary to keep up with the changing healthcare landscape. One of the significant changes was the reporting of National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers. The NPI number is a unique identifier assigned to healthcare providers, which replaced the old UPIN and NPI numbers. This change was implemented to improve accuracy and efficiency in the processing of healthcare claims.
Another significant change that was accommodated in the revised CMS-1500 claim form was the adoption of ICD-10 diagnosis codes. ICD-10 codes replaced the old ICD-9 codes and provided a more comprehensive and specific set of codes to describe medical diagnoses. This change was necessary to improve the quality of healthcare data and provide better outcomes for patients.
Lastly, the revised CMS-1500 claim form also accommodated optical scanning. This change allowed healthcare providers to submit claims electronically, which improved efficiency and reduced errors in processing.
In summary, the CMS-1500 claim form was revised to version 02-12 in 2012 to accommodate changes in the healthcare system, such as reporting of NPI numbers, adoption of ICD-10 diagnosis codes, and the use of optical scanning. These changes were implemented to improve accuracy, efficiency, and overall healthcare outcomes.
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16. Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs is mainly used in
pharmacies.
O A. community
OB. online
O C. compounding
O D. hospital
Answers
Answer:
D. Hospital
Explanation:
I majored in Health